Module 05.Digital Techniques
05.01. Electronic Instrument Systems.
Question Number. 1. What are the basic elements for
'Classic T' format?.
Option A. Direction,
altitude and height.
Option B. Airspeed,
pitch and roll.
Option C. Airspeed,
attitude, altitude and direction.
Correct Answer is. Airspeed,
attitude, altitude and direction.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. Typical displays on an EHSI are.
Option A. Engine
indications.
Option B. VOR,
Map, Plan and weather radar.
Option C. VOR,
Plan, Map and Attitude.
Correct Answer is. VOR,
Map, Plan and weather radar.
Explanation. Pallett
- Aircraft Instruments.
Question Number. 3. An EADI display showing a moving runway
moves down during the final stages of an approach. The aircraft must.
Option A. fly
down.
Option B. fly
up.
Option C. hold
descent path.
Correct Answer is. fly
down.
Explanation. At
200ft, during Approach, the Rising Runway starts to move up the EADI display
until, at touch down, it touches the bottom of the aircraft symbol. If the
Rising Runway start to move down again it means that the aircraft is climbing
and should FLY DOWN.
Question Number. 4. During an instrument approach, the
glideslope pointer eflects below the glideslope centre mark. This means the
aircraft is positioned.
Option A. above
the glideslope.
Option B. below
the glideslope.
Option C. to the
left of the localiser.
Correct Answer is. above
the glideslope.
Explanation. Consider
the centre of the G/S scale as the aircraft position and the pointer as the
centre of the G/S beam.
Question Number. 5. Engine parameters are displayed on.
Option A. ECAM.
Option B. EHSI.
Option C. FMSCDU.
Correct Answer is. ECAM.
Explanation. Engine
parameters can be displayed on ECAM by selecting the Engine Page. See Pallett -
Aircraft Instrumnets and Integrated Systems Page 391.
Question Number. 6. What is the fixed feature of an ADI?.
Option A. The
glideslope pointer.
Option B. The
aircraft symbol.
Option C. The
lateral deviation bar.
Correct Answer is. The
aircraft symbol.
Explanation. The
little aeroplane pianted in the middle of the instrument.
Question Number. 7. On an EADI, the Flight Director command
bars show.
Option A. the
path with respect to the horizon.
Option B. the
required path with respect to the actual path.
Option C. the
actual path with respect to the required path.
Correct Answer is. the
required path with respect to the actual path.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. What instrument includes a display of a
rising runway?.
Option A. ECAM.
Option B. EHSI.
Option C. EADI.
Correct Answer is. EADI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. What functions are available on the
EHSI?.
Option A. Full
arc and Wx only.
Option B. Full
arc, Wx and Map Mode.
Option C. Full
Arc only.
Correct Answer is. Full
arc, Wx and Map Mode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. With radio coupled autopilot, what are
the inputs?.
Option A. ADF
and VOR.
Option B. ILS
and VOR.
Option C. ADF
and ILS.
Correct Answer is. ILS
and VOR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. An EADI display of flight director
commands are coloured.
Option A. cyan.
Option B. magenta.
Option C. red.
Correct Answer is. magenta.
Explanation. Aircraft
instruments and integrated systems,(pallet) page 302 fig 12.5 eadi flight
director command bars are magenta.
Question Number. 12. EFIS systems have two control panels,
their purpose is.
Option A. one to
control the type of EFIS display and the other to select the source of the
information being displayed.
Option B. one
for the EADI display and one for the EHSI display.
Option C. to
provide display control by one control panel whilst the other provides a standby.
Correct Answer is. one
to control the type of EFIS display and the other to select the source of the
information being displayed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. What would you expect to see displayed on
an EADI display?.
Option A. Compass
heading, selected heading and VOR.
Option B. Course
information, weather radar, way point alert and bearing pointers.
Option C. Flight
director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude & autoland.
Correct Answer is. Flight
director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude & autoland.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. An EFIS ADI display will show along with
pitch and roll.
Option A. flight
director bars, autoland, compass rose, altitude.
Option B. decision
height, autoland, rad alt , altitude.
Option C. flight
director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude, decision height.
Correct Answer is. decision
height, autoland, rad alt , altitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. If the glideslope pointer is below the
centre mark the aircraft is.
Option A. below
the glideslope.
Option B. on the
glideslope.
Option C. above
the glideslope.
Correct Answer is. above
the glideslope.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. On an EFIS system the weather radar is
displayed on.
Option A. the
FMC CDU.
Option B. the
EADI.
Option C. the
EHSI.
Correct Answer is. the
EHSI.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 305.
Question Number. 17. EADI displays show.
Option A. pitch,
roll and waypoints.
Option B. pitch
and roll attitudes.
Option C. heading
and weather radar.
Correct Answer is. pitch
and roll attitudes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. On an EHSI in weather radar mode, a
severe storm would be shown as.
Option A. orange
areas with black or yellow surrounds.
Option B. red
areas with black surrounds
Option C. blue
areas with white background.
Correct Answer is. red
areas with black surrounds.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. During flight (non fault conditions) the
EICAS system displays on the lower CRT.
Option A. flight
phase page.
Option B. secondary
engine parameters.
Option C. synoptic
display.
Correct Answer is. secondary
engine parameters.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. Radio altitude is displayed on an EFIS
system.
Option A. on the
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator.
Option B. on the
Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator.
Option C. on the
RMI.
Correct Answer is. on
the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. An EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll.
Option A. autoland,
altitude, compass rose and flight director bars.
Option B. autoland,
decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip indicator.
Option C. autoland,
rad alt, decision height and slip indicator.
Correct Answer is. autoland,
decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip indicator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. An electronic flight instrument display
consists of.
Option A. Mode
control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and Data
inputs.
Option B. ADC,
Altimeter, VSI and ASI.
Option C. ADI,
HSI and Symbol generator.
Correct Answer is. Mode
control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and Data
inputs.
Explanation. Automatic
Flight Control by EHJ Pallett and Shawn Coyle page 268.
Question Number. 23. The EFIS system consists of.
Option A. EHSI,
Mode control panel, EADI.
Option B. EADI,
EHSI, Symbol generators.
Option C. Mode
control Panel, RDMI, EHSI.
Correct Answer is. EADI,
EHSI, Symbol generators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. ILS indications on PFD/ND are shown in.
Option A. cyan.
Option B. magenta.
Option C. green.
Correct Answer is. magenta.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. A weather radar image can be displayed on
the ND on all modes except.
Option A. arc.
Option B. nav
rose.
Option C. plan.
Correct Answer is. plan.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. In a typical commercial aircraft Head Up
Guidance System.
Option A. the
type of information shown on the attitude director indicator is displayed on a
transparent plate.
Option B. all
instrument information is displayed on the windshield.
Option C. only
emergency indications or warnings are displayed to the pilot.
Correct Answer is. the
type of information shown on the attitude director indicator is displayed on a
transparent plate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. A modern Electronic Horizontal Situation
Indicator will display the following:.
Option A. Waypoints,
ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and Magnetic Heading.
Option B. ILS
Steering Information, Flight director information and Glide Slope Deviation.
Option C. Ground
speed, Magnetic Heading, Way points and Localiser.
Correct Answer is. Waypoints,
ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and Magnetic Heading.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. Cockpit panels have a matt colour finish.
The purpose is.
Option A. so
that pilots feel more comfortable during daytime.
Option B. so
that the amount of glare is reduced to minimum.
Option C. so
that dust and dirt are less evident on panels.
Correct Answer is. so
that the amount of glare is reduced to minimum.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. A complete EFIS installation in an
aircraft is made up of.
Option A. either
of the above.
Option B. right
(captain) and left (co-pilot).
Option C. left
(captain) and right (co-pilot).
Correct Answer is. either
of the above.
Explanation. could
be either, as helicopters are the other way round when compared to aeroplanes.
Question Number. 30. On a modern 'glass cockpit' aircraft,
engine information will be displayed on.
Option A. FMS.
Option B. EFIS.
Option C. ECAM.
Correct Answer is. ECAM.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. What does EFIS mean?.
Option A. Electronic
Fire Indication Signal.
Option B. Electronic
Flight Instrument System.
Option C. Electronic
Flight Information System.
Correct Answer is. Electronic
Flight Instrument System.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. What does EICAS mean?.
Option A. Electronic
indicator and control alerting system.
Option B. Engine
indicating and Crew alerting system.
Option C. Electronic
indicator and crew alerting system.
Correct Answer is. Engine
indicating and Crew alerting system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. What does ECAM mean?.
Option A. Engine
Centralised Aircraft Management System.
Option B. Engine
Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
Option C. Electronic
Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
Correct Answer is. Electronic
Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
Explanation. NIL.
05.02. Numbering Systems.
Question Number. 1. Convert 011101 Base2 to octal.
Option A. 25.
Option B. 35.
Option C. 33.
Correct Answer is. 35.
Explanation. The
OCTAL code has 8 digits, 0 - 7. To convert binary to octal divide the binary
number into groups of three starting from the right. You've got to know your
binary, octal, hex and bcd conversions!.
Question Number. 2. The binary number 11010111 expressed as
a decimal is.
Option A. 215.
Option B. 223.
Option C. 207.
Correct Answer is. 215.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. The octal number 1001 expressed as a
decimal is.
Option A. 9.
Option B. 65.
Option C. 513.
Correct Answer is. 513.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. What is 345 in binary?.
Option A. 100111001.
Option B. 101011001.
Option C. 110011001.
Correct Answer is. 101011001.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. What is hex 110 in decimal?.
Option A. 282.
Option B. 272.
Option C. 32.
Correct Answer is. 272.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Convert the binary word 1100 to
decimal.
Option A. 11.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 12.
Correct Answer is. 12.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. If a data message is made up of 1s and
0s, it is.
Option A. analogue.
Option B. binary.
Option C. digital.
Correct Answer is. digital.
Explanation. Digital
is 1s and 0s, either binary or grey code.
Question Number. 8. Convert the binary word 1110 to
decimal.
Option A. 12.
Option B. 14.
Option C. 15.
Correct Answer is. 14.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. Convert the binary number 110010 to
decimal.
Option A. 80.
Option B. 50.
Option C. 34.
Correct Answer is. 50.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Convert the hexadecimal number D into
decimal.
Option A. 13.
Option B. 15.
Option C. 14.
Correct Answer is. 13.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Convert decimal 15 into binary.
Option A. 1111.
Option B. 1101.
Option C. 1110.
Correct Answer is. 1111.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. Convert 448 to hex.
Option A. 22
Base16.
Option B. 36
Base16.
Option C. 24
Base16.
Correct Answer is. 24
Base16.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Convert decimal 15 into hexadecimal.
Option A. G.
Option B. E.
Option C. F.
Correct Answer is. F.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. What is 345 in binary?.
Option A. 100111001.
Option B. 110011001.
Option C. 101011001.
Correct Answer is. 101011001.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. Convert 1D to binary.
Option A. 11101.
Option B. 29.
Option C. 101001.
Correct Answer is. 11101.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. Convert 2C hex to octal.
Option A. 35.
Option B. 44.
Option C. 54.
Correct Answer is. 54.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. A hexadecimal is a number to base.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 8.
Correct Answer is. 16.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. 1012 converted to decimal is.
Option A. 52.
Option B. 210.
Option C. 510.
Correct Answer is. 510.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. The binary coded decimal number 10011000
expressed as a decimal number is.
Option A. 1528.
Option B. 9810.
Option C. 1522.
Correct Answer is. 9810.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. The decimal number 7 expressed as a
binary number is.
Option A. 101
Base 2.
Option B. 111
Base 2.
Option C. 7 Base
2.
Correct Answer is. 111
Base 2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. Convert 011101 binary to octal.
Option A. 25.
Option B. 35.
Option C. 33.
Correct Answer is. 35.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Binary Number: 110010 is.
Option A. 80.
Option B. 50.
Option C. 34.
Correct Answer is. 50.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. Binary addition of 1101 + 101101 is.
Option A. 58.
Option B. 70.
Option C. 61.
Correct Answer is. 58.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. The binary number 11010111 is expressed
as a decimal is.
Option A. 107.
Option B. 215.
Option C. 53.
Correct Answer is. 215.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. The octal number 1001 expressed as a
decimal is.
Option A. 713.
Option B. 613.
Option C. 513.
Correct Answer is. 513.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. What is 011100001 Base2 in Octal?.
Option A. 225
Base 8.
Option B. 281
Base 10.
Option C. 341
Base 8.
Correct Answer is. 341
Base 8.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. The binary number 1010100011100101 Base2
in hexadecimal is.
Option A. 22BC
Base 16.
Option B. FFFF
Base 16.
Option C. A8E5
Base 16.
Correct Answer is. A8E5
Base 16.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. 0011011000101001 when transferred to
computer language this information can be a representation of.
Option A. binary,
octal or decimal numbers.
Option B. hex,
octal and binary numbers.
Option C. hex,
octal and decimal numbers.
Correct Answer is. hex,
octal and decimal numbers.
Explanation. Binary
IS 'computer language' not a representation. Therefore any answer with 'binary'
in it is wrong.
Question Number. 29. A computer message 3B4 is.
Option A. Octal.
Option B. binary.
Option C. hexadecimal.
Correct Answer is. hexadecimal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. What is 54 octal in hexadecimal?.
Option A. 2F.
Option B. 4F.
Option C. 2C.
Correct Answer is. 2C.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. 2D in decimal is.
Option A. 43.
Option B. 45.
Option C. 41.
Correct Answer is. 45.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 132.
Question Number. 32. 84 decimal in hexadecimal is.
Option A. 5f.
Option B. f4.
Option C. 54.
Correct Answer is. 54.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 132.
Question Number. 33. 16 hexadecimal converted to decimal is
equivalent to.
Option A. 48.
Option B. 38.
Option C. 22.
Correct Answer is. 22.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 132.
Question Number. 34. Decimal 10 converted to binary is.
Option A. 1111.
Option B. 1001.
Option C. 1010.
Correct Answer is. 1010.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 128.
Question Number. 35. What systems uses base 10?.
Option A. Octal.
Option B. Binary.
Option C. Decimal.
Correct Answer is. Decimal.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 128.
Question Number. 36. What systems use base 16?.
Option A. BCD.
Option B. Octal.
Option C. Hexadecimal.
Correct Answer is. Hexadecimal.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 132.
Question Number. 37. Binary coded decimal (BCD) format has a
minimum of.
Option A. 2 lots
of four.
Option B. four.
Option C. 3 lots
of four.
Correct Answer is. four.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. What is the Hexadecimal number F86 in
Binary?.
Option A. 111110000001.
Option B. 3974.
Option C. 111110000110.
Correct Answer is. 111110000110.
Explanation. Convert
it to Decimal first (15 x 256 + 8 x 16 + 6 x 1) = 3974. Since it is an even
number, it must be the answer with a zero on the end.
Question Number. 39. What is 11000012 - 1011002?.
Option A. 10001101
Base 2.
Option B. 110111
Base 2.
Option C. 110101
Base 2.
Correct Answer is. 110101
Base 2.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 1129.
Question Number. 40. What is used for the power of 10?.
Option A. Digital.
Option B. Octal.
Option C. Decimal.
Correct Answer is. Decimal.
Explanation. Decimal
is a power of 10 counting system.
Question Number. 41. What is 44 in hexadecimal?.
Option A. 2d.
Option B. 2c.
Option C. 2F.
Correct Answer is. 2c.
Explanation. (2 *
16) + (12 * 1) = 44 (c = 12).
Question Number. 42. What is octal 33 in hexadecimal?.
Option A. 1b.
Option B. 11.
Option C. 22.
Correct Answer is. 1b.
Explanation. Octal
33 = (3 * 8) + (3 * 1) = 27 decimal. 27 = (1 * 16) + (11 * 1) = 1b (b = 11).
Question Number. 43. An octal format hexadecimal number 3F
written as binary would be.
Option A. 110
111.
Option B. 111
111.
Option C. 101
011.
Correct Answer is. 111
111.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. What is f86 hex when converted to
binary?.
Option A. 1000010000110.
Option B. 111110000110.
Option C. 100000000000.
Correct Answer is. 111110000110.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. In a computer, the address 3B8 is.
Option A. hexadecimal.
Option B. decimal.
Option C. octal.
Correct Answer is. hexadecimal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. What is a Grays converter?.
Option A. Analogue
to Analogue.
Option B. Analogue
to Digital.
Option C. Digital
to Analogue.
Correct Answer is. Analogue
to Digital.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. What is the hexadecimal number AE5 in
octal form?.
Option A. 5445.
Option B. 5340.
Option C. 5345.
Correct Answer is. 5345.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. Hexadecimal 5C is what in binary?.
Option A. 1011111.
Option B. 1011100.
Option C. 1110100.
Correct Answer is. 1011100.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. Binary 11001101 converted to octal is.
Option A. 12E.
Option B. 315.
Option C. 205.
Correct Answer is. 315.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. What is the binary notation for 29?.
Option A. 0001
0110.
Option B. 0010
1001.
Option C. 0001
1101.
Correct Answer is. 0001
1101.
Explanation. Despite
the deliberate gap between the blocks of 4 digits, this is not a BCD question.
Question Number. 51. 101012 + 110012 =.
Option A. 462.
Option B. 468.
Option C. 4610.
Correct Answer is. 4610.
Explanation. 101012
+ 110012 = 1011102 = 4610.
05.03. Data Conversion.
Question Number. 1. If a signal has quantity in volts and
physical position it is.
Option A. digital.
Option B. synchronous.
Option C. analogue.
Correct Answer is. analogue.
Explanation. This is
the definition of an analogue signal.
Question Number. 2. Within a computer controlled flight
system, position feedback is converted from.
Option A. position
feedback to rate feedback.
Option B. analogue
to digital.
Option C. digital
to analogue.
Correct Answer is. analogue
to digital.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. What is serial to parallel and
vice-versa called?.
Option A. Switching.
Option B. Multiplex/Demultiplex.
Option C. Encoder/Decoder.
Correct Answer is. Multiplex/Demultiplex.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. A thyristor is a device which has.
Option A. a
positive temperature coefficient.
Option B. a
negative temperature coefficient.
Option C. a
temperature coefficient of zero.
Correct Answer is. a
negative temperature coefficient.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. Physical variables in quantitative
forms, such as voltage or angular rotation of a shaft are.
Option A. digital.
Option B. analogue.
Option C. binary.
Correct Answer is. analogue.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. A D to A converter is required to produce
an output range of 0 to 10V. This can be achieved by.
Option A. a non
inverting op amp connected in series with output.
Option B. an
inverting op amp connected in series with output.
Option C. a
differentiator with a 100 Kilohm feedback resistor.
Correct Answer is. an
inverting op amp connected in series with output.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. A D to A converter would use a
precision amplifier to.
Option A. compensate
for the variation of the feedback resistor with temperature.
Option B. ensure
that the output voltages remain accurate.
Option C. ensure
that the input voltage remains accurate.
Correct Answer is. ensure
that the output voltages remain accurate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. A given transducer provides a voltage
which corresponds to true heading. This voltage can beconverted to 'bits' by
using a.
Option A. analogue
to digital converter.
Option B. digital
to analogue converter.
Option C. commutator.
Correct Answer is. analogue
to digital converter.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. An A to D converter uses successive
approximation to.
Option A. increase
resolution.
Option B. increase
accuracy.
Option C. increase
speed.
Correct Answer is. increase
speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. An R-2R D to A converter uses.
Option A. two
values of resistors whose precision is not important.
Option B. two
values of precision resistors.
Option C. resistors
whose values are logarithmic.
Correct Answer is. two
values of resistors whose precision is not important.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. The function of a commutator is to.
Option A. convert
from analogue to binary form.
Option B. provide
continuous availability of all parameters connected to the system.
Option C. provide
a sampling in sequence of a number of
parameters.
Correct Answer is. provide
a sampling in sequence of a number of
parameters.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. An encoder using Grey code.
Option A. changes
analogue to binary.
Option B. changes
digital to analogue.
Option C. changes
analogue to digital.
Correct Answer is. changes
analogue to digital.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. An analogue to digital converter is as
accurate as.
Option A. the
frequency.
Option B. the
sampling rate.
Option C. the
amplitude.
Correct Answer is. the
sampling rate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. A digital to analogue converter that
requires the output to range between 0v and -10v would have.
Option A. a
non-inverting amplifier in line with the output with a resistor to ground.
Option B. an
inverting amplifier in series with the output line.
Option C. a
non-inverting amplifier in parallel with the output line.
Correct Answer is. an
inverting amplifier in series with the output line.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. In an analogue to digital converter, the
input voltage.
Option A. is
switched by the digital input.
Option B. is
intermittent.
Option C. stays
on constantly.
Correct Answer is. stays
on constantly.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. An R-2R Converter has values or
resistance.
Option A. whose
relative precision are accurate.
Option B. whose
precision are not accurate.
Option C. whose
precision are accurate.
Correct Answer is. whose
precision are not accurate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. What does 1 represent in an analogue
system?.
Option A. High
frequency
Option B. Switches
closed, magnetised
Option C. Switches
open, unmagnetised
Correct Answer is. Switches
closed, magnetised
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. Audio sounds recorded digitally.
Option A. are
superior quality and graeter bandwidth.
Option B. are
narrow bandwidth.
Option C. are
not as accurate due to clipping and input errors.
Correct Answer is. are
superior quality and graeter bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. An analogue to digital converter where it
counts up to binary state equal to the analogue input and then back down when
this is reached is a.
Option A. a ramp
type converter.
Option B. successive
approximation counter.
Option C. flash
type converter.
Correct Answer is. a
ramp type converter.
Explanation. Digital
Fundamentals T L Floyd page 790.
Question Number. 20. Transistors are used in a current
triggered D to A device to.
Option A. switch
off the inputs.
Option B. switch
on the input.
Option C. change
the state of the inputs.
Correct Answer is. change
the state of the inputs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. Op amps generally used in ADCs and DACs
are normally.
Option A. high
input impedance, high output impedance.
Option B. high
input impedance, low output impedance.
Option C. low
input impedance , how output impedance.
Correct Answer is. high
input impedance, low output impedance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Analogue logic 1 is.
Option A. closed
switch, Logic Q=0.
Option B. closed
circuit, Logic Q=1.
Option C. open
circuit.
Correct Answer is. closed
circuit, Logic Q=1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. An ADC uses successive approximation to.
Option A. increase
speed.
Option B. increase
accuracy.
Option C. increase
resolution.
Correct Answer is. increase
speed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. A DAC uses a precision amplifier to.
Option A. ensure
the output voltages remain accurate.
Option B. compensates
for the variation of the feedback resistor due to temperature.
Option C. ensure
the input remains accurate.
Correct Answer is. ensure
the output voltages remain accurate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. A precision op-amp is used in a DAC to.
Option A. compensate
for temperature variation.
Option B. give
output at required level.
Option C. make
output between 0 - 5V.
Correct Answer is. give
output at required level.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. In an R-2R ladder converter the values of
resistors.
Option A. do not
need to be of precise values.
Option B. only
the first resistor need to be precise.
Option C. are
precise.
Correct Answer is. do
not need to be of precise values.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. What is the quickest method of analogue
to digital conversion?.
Option A. Voltage
to frequency.
Option B. Flash
converter.
Option C. Single
ramp method.
Correct Answer is. Flash
converter.
Explanation. Digital
Fundamentals by Thomas L Floyd.
Question Number. 28. A charge balancing ADC uses.
Option A. successive
approximation logic circuit to control the output.
Option B. a
closed loop system to compare the analogue input to give the required digital
output.
Option C. a
closed loop system to check the analogue input with the input sample.
Correct Answer is. a
closed loop system to compare the analogue input to give the required digital
output.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Sample and hold is a technique used in.
Option A. D to A
conversion.
Option B. Moving
coil instruments.
Option C. A to D
conversion.
Correct Answer is. A
to D conversion.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. An analogue to digital converter (ADC)
requires the following.
Option A. a
reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter, a comparitor.
Option B. a
reference voltage, an input gate, a comparator.
Option C. a
reference voltage, an input gate, an internal counter.
Correct Answer is. a
reference voltage, an input gate, a comparator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. What is 'Throughput Rate' for the A/D
converter?.
Option A. Number
of complete digital words encoded in a specified unit of time.
Option B. None
of the above.
Option C. Speed
of variable resistor which senses the analogue signal.
Correct Answer is. Number
of complete digital words encoded in a specified unit of time.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. What is the Resolution of A/D and D/A
converters?.
Option A. Resolution
of the Instrument which displays the values.
Option B. Number
of discrete values that can be represented by the digital word.
Option C. Rate
at which data is converted.
Correct Answer is. Number
of discrete values that can be represented by the digital word.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. Digital signals can be represented.
Option A. only
as a binary value.
Option B. by a
series of integers.
Option C. by
real numbers.
Correct Answer is. by
a series of integers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. When testing EGT probe.
Option A. it
must be soaked and ambient temperature allowance taken into consideration.
Option B. not
necessarily soaked but ambient temperature must be taken into consideration.
Option C. if its
not soaked, a minimum temperature of 20 degrees C taken as OAT.
Correct Answer is. it
must be soaked and ambient temperature allowance taken into consideration.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. A Digital to Analogue Converter has a
resolution of 0.3 Volts. What will be the analogue output when the digital
input is 10110.
Option A. 6.6
Volts RMS.
Option B. -6.6
Volts DC.G36.
Option C. 6.6
Volts DC.
Correct Answer is. 6.6
Volts DC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. A number represented as a physical quantity,
e.g. voltage or speed of rotation is.
Option A. digital.
Option B. maximum
value.
Option C. analogue.
Correct Answer is. analogue.
Explanation. NIL.
05.04. Data Buses.
Question Number. 1. In arinc 629, LRUs are programmed to
transmit.
Option A. one at
a time.
Option B. one
transmits and one recieves.
Option C. all at
the same time.
Correct Answer is. one
transmits and one recieves.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. In aircraft use, fibre optic cables
should comply with.
Option A. ARINC
629 standard.
Option B. ARIND
429 standard.
Option C. ARIND
636 standard.
Correct Answer is. ARIND
636 standard.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. ARINC 629 databus is.
Option A. one
cable, bi-directional.
Option B. two
cables, uni-directional.
Option C. two
cables, bi directional.
Correct Answer is. two
cables, bi directional.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. An ARINC 573 data bus is used.
Option A. to
input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder.
Option B. to
supply digital inputs from a Symbol Generator to the EADI and EHSI.
Option C. to
input into a FDR Digital Acquisition Unit.
Correct Answer is. to
input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder.
Explanation. The FDR
can have different inputs depending upon the age of the system, modern systems
use ARINC 573. The inputs to FDR DAU are only analogue, discreet and ARINC 429.
The interface between SGUs, EADI and EHSI is only ARINC 429.
Question Number. 5. An ARINC 429 bus uses.
Option A. a
twisted shielded pair of wires.
Option B. two
bi-directional twin sheathed and earthed wires.
Option C. a
single twin wire cable for each transmitter.
Correct Answer is. a
twisted shielded pair of wires.
Explanation. Pallett
- Aircraft Instruments Page 157.
Question Number. 6. The ARINC 429 data bus word systems
use.
Option A. binary
coded decimal.
Option B. decimal
numbering.
Option C. hexadecimal
numbering.
Correct Answer is. binary
coded decimal.
Explanation. Pallett
- Aircraft Instruments Page 156.
Question Number. 7. ARINC 573 is related to what system?.
Option A. Weather
Radar.
Option B. FDR.
Option C. INS.
Correct Answer is. FDR.
Explanation. Boeing
Maintenance Training notes for B757.
Question Number. 8. ARINC 629 current mode couplers are.
Option A. capacitive.
Option B. resistive.
Option C. inductive.
Correct Answer is. inductive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. ARINC 629 databus is.
Option A. one
bus, bi-directional data flow.
Option B. two
buses, unidirectional.
Option C. two
buses, bi-directional data flow.
Correct Answer is. one
bus, bi-directional data flow.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Normal transmission order of ARINC 629
LRUs in periodic mode is in order of.
Option A. shortest
to largest TI.
Option B. shortest
to largest TG.
Option C. power
up.
Correct Answer is. power
up.
Explanation. B777 MM
23-91-00 pg 41. Shortest to longest terminal gap is for aperiodic mode only.
Question Number. 11. In an ARINC 429 wordstring, bits 1 to 8
represent the.
Option A. destination
LRU address.
Option B.
monitored parameter.
Option C. message.
Correct Answer is. monitored
parameter.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 159 and ARINCs tutorial.
Question Number. 12. ARINC 629 terminal transmit interval is.
Option A. common
to each terminal.
Option B. unique
to each terminal.
Option C. when
all terminals are quiet.
Correct Answer is. common
to each terminal.
Explanation. The
ARINC 629 TI is common to all LRUs.
Question Number. 13. MIL-STD-1533 is a data bus for.
Option A. Inertial
Reference System.
Option B. Flight
Data Recorders.
Option C. Digital
Information Transfer System.
Correct Answer is. Digital
Information Transfer System.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. ARINC 629 periodic mode is used for.
Option A. transferring
data only on events important to aircraft operation.
Option B. database
loads.
Option C. normal
operation.
Correct Answer is. normal
operation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. How is data coupled to an ARINC 629 data
bus?.
Option A. By a
resistive pickup.
Option B. By an
inductive pickup.
Option C. By a
capacitive pickup.
Correct Answer is. By
an inductive pickup.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. How does MIL-STD-1533 put data onto the
databus?.
Option A. Through
the bus controller.
Option B. R1
(remote terminal).
Option C. SSIFU
(sub-system interface unit).
Correct Answer is. Through
the bus controller.
Explanation. Through
the bus controller.
Question Number. 17. The parity bit in digital information is
used.
Option A. to
check the validity of data information.
Option B. for
BITE programs.
Option C. to
check the status of the system.
Correct Answer is. to
check the validity of data information.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. ARINC 429 SDI word format is at bits.
Option A. 32.
Option B. 1-8.
Option C. 9-10.
Correct Answer is. 9-10.
Explanation. SDI =
Source Destination Ident.
Question Number. 19. What is the parity bit for on an ARINC
429 bus?.
Option A. To act
as a terminal gap in an emergency.
Option B. To
delay the signal.
Option C. To
check for corruption during transmission of a word.
Correct Answer is. To
check for corruption during transmission of a word.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. An ARINC 429 word label format is.
Option A. hexadecimal.
Option B. octal.
Option C. binary.
Correct Answer is. octal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. How many LRUs can be connected to an
ARINC 429 data bus?.
Option A. 120.
Option B. 60.
Option C. 20.
Correct Answer is. 20.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. ARINC 629 terminal transmit interval is.
Option A. common
to each terminal.
Option B. is
when all transmissions are quiet.
Option C. unique
to each terminal.
Correct Answer is. common
to each terminal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. An ARINC 429 bus uses.
Option A. a
twisted shielded pair of wires.
Option B. a
single twin cable for each transmitter.
Option C. two
bi-directional twin, sheathed and earthed wires.
Correct Answer is. a
twisted shielded pair of wires.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. ARINC 429 data bus systems uses.
Option A. hexadecimal
numbering.
Option B. binary
coded decimal.
Option C. decimal
numbering.
Correct Answer is. binary
coded decimal.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. An ARINC 429 Binary Coded Decimal word
occupies word bits.
Option A. 1-8.
Option B. 11-29.
Option C. 11-28.
Correct Answer is. 11-29.
Explanation. Two
versions of ARINC 429. BCD uses 11 - 29, Binary uses 11 - 28.
Question Number. 26. An ARINC 429 system uses a.
Option A. 20 bit
word over a bi-directional bus.
Option B. 32 bit
word over a twisted pair of wires.
Option C. 16 bit
word over a twisted pair of wires.
Correct Answer is. 32
bit word over a twisted pair of wires.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. An ARINC 629 characteristic is.
Option A. all
LRUs can transmit and receive at the same time.
Option B. data
can transmit in both directions down the data bus.
Option C. all
LRUs can transmit at the same time.
Correct Answer is. data
can transmit in both directions down the data bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. What limits the number of ARINC 429
receivers on a bus?.
Option A. The
speed and size.
Option B. The
weight.
Option C. The
parallel input impedance.
Correct Answer is. The
parallel input impedance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B
by.
Option A. non
return to zero.
Option B. Manchester
bi-phase.
Option C. bi-polar
return to zero.
Correct Answer is. Manchester
bi-phase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. How are engine indications sent to the
FDR?.
Option A. Source
isolated.
Option B. Via
ARINC 629.
Option C. Via
ARINC 573.
Correct Answer is. Via
ARINC 573.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. What system uses base 8?.
Option A. ARINC
429, in dataword labels only.
Option B. ARINC
573.
Option C. ARINC
629.
Correct Answer is. ARINC
429, in dataword labels only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. On an ARINC 629 data bus, the maximum
amount of current-mode couplers per data bus is.
Option A. 46.
Option B. 120.
Option C. 64.
Correct Answer is. 120.
Explanation. 120
LRUs maximum (but the B777 uses 46).
Question Number. 33. To connect an LRU to the data bus.
Option A. a
terminal controller and interface module only is required.
Option B. current
mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break is required.
Option C. a
current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller is
required.
Correct Answer is. a
current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal controller is
required.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. A current-mode coupler contains an E-Core
assembly. The purpose of the E-Core is to provide effective screening of the
signal through the.
Option A. current-mode
coupler.
Option B. couple
the signal to the data bus.
Option C. enable
easy access for monitoring of the signal.
Correct Answer is. couple
the signal to the data bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. The ARINC 429 low rate of transmission
is.
Option A. 100
kbits/second with high of 12-14 Mbits/second.
Option B. 12-14
Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second.
Option C. 12-14
Mbits/second with high of 100 Mbits/secon.
Correct Answer is. 12-14
Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. An ARINC 629 bus cable is a twisted pair
of wires with.
Option A. a 130
ohm resistor at one end.
Option B. a 130
ohm resistor at both ends.
Option C. a 230
ohm resistor at one end.
Correct Answer is. a
130 ohm resistor at both ends.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. An ARINC 629 stub cable.
Option A. connects
single directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler.
Option B. connects
bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler.
Option C. connects
bi-directional data between two LRUs.
Correct Answer is. connects
bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode coupler.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. Care must be taken when installing ARINC
629 cables into bus panels, damage to cables can cause.
Option A. corrosion
of the conductor.
Option B. arcing
of high voltage signals.
Option C. standing
waves.
Correct Answer is. corrosion
of the conductor.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. An aircraft databus system.
Option A. can
use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 as they are compatible.
Option B. can
use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card files and signal
gateways.
Option C. cannot
use both ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 data buses.
Correct Answer is. can
use both systems, ARINC 629 and ARINC 429 via system card files and signal
gateways.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. ARINC 629 is used for.
Option A. emergency
only.
Option B. a
backup to ARINC 429.
Option C. normal
flight.
Correct Answer is. normal
flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. Once an ARINC 629 LRU has transmitted a
message it will wait how long before transmitting again?.
Option A. Until
the end of the synchronization gap.
Option B. Until
the start of the terminal gap.
Option C. Until
the end of the transmit interval
Correct Answer is. Until
the end of the transmit interval.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. How is the word label 206 written in
ARINC 429?.
Option A. Decimal
206.
Option B. Octal
01100001.
Option C. Binary
11000110.
Correct Answer is. Octal
01100001.
Explanation. Label
is Octal - MSB to right - so yes, it is backwards.
Question Number. 43. What is ARINC 561 used for?.
Option A. Fly by
Wire systems.
Option B. Flight
Data Recorder systems.
Option C. Inertial
Navigation Systems.
Correct Answer is. Inertial
Navigation Systems.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. An ARINC data word is bits 11-29, if bits
11-18 are patched which of the following would be the LSB bit?.
Option A. 19.
Option B. 29.
Option C. 21.
Correct Answer is. 19.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. Fibreoptic databus links are.
Option A. simplex.
Option B. bi-directional.
Option C. one
way data buses.
Correct Answer is. bi-directional.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 46. ARINC 629 is.
Option A. half
duplex.
Option B. full
duplex.
Option C. simplex.
Correct Answer is. half
duplex.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. A signal in an ARINC 629 system uses.
Option A. a pair
of wires per transmitter unit.
Option B. a
single wire.
Option C. a
twisted pair of wires or fibre optics.
Correct Answer is. a
twisted pair of wires or fibre optics.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 148. http://www.condoreng.com ARINC 429 tutorial
Question Number. 48. An in-series ARINC 429 system transmits
using.
Option A. encoder.
Option B. time
division multiplexing.
Option C. wave
division multiplexing.
Correct Answer is. time
division multiplexing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. A terminal controller.
Option A. is
repetitive transmitting.
Option B. will
transmit only once during each transmit interval.
Option C. transmits
only when addressed.
Correct Answer is. will
transmit only once during each transmit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. The number of LRUs which transmit/receive
on ARINC-429 is dependent upon.
Option A. speed
of transmission & size of aircraft systems.
Option B. parallel
input impedance.
Option C. size
of S.D.I.
Correct Answer is. parallel
input impedance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. One of the ARINC 429 formats is.
Option A. BCD.
Option B. octal.
Option C. hexadecimal.
Correct Answer is. BCD.
Explanation. http://www.condoreng.com
ARINC 429 tutorial
Question Number. 52. A group of bits transmitted at the same
time is.
Option A. parallel
data.
Option B. a
clock signal.
Option C. serial
data.
Correct Answer is. parallel
data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 53. The ARINC 429 system uses which of the
following system to transfer data?.
Option A. Non
return to zero.
Option B. Harvard
bi phase.
Option C. Bi-directional
return to zero.
Correct Answer is. Bi-directional
return to zero.
Explanation. http://www.condoreng.com
ARINC 429 tutorial
Question Number. 54. Which of the following ARINCs is
bidirectional?.
Option A. 629.
Option B. 429.
Option C. 573.
Correct Answer is. 629.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 148. http://www.condoreng.com ARINC 429 tutorial
Question Number. 55. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B
by using.
Option A. non
return to zero.
Option B. Manchester
bi-phase.
Option C. bipolar
return to zero.
Correct Answer is. Manchester
bi-phase.
Explanation. http://www.condoreng.com
MIL-STD-1553 tutorial
Question Number. 56. The general arrangement of ARINC 629
includes.
Option A. databus
cable, current mode coupler, stub cable.
Option B. current
mode coupler, databus cable only.
Option C. databus
cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler.
Correct Answer is. databus
cable, current mode coupler, stub cable.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. ARINC 629 Databus cables are terminated
using.
Option A. 100
ohms resistor.
Option B. 130
ohms resistor.
Option C. 25
ohms resistor.
Correct Answer is. 130
ohms resistor.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. In ARINC 429 data field is bits 11 to 28.
If the bits 11 to 18 had pad bits, the L.S.B. Of the data would be.
Option A. bit
11.
Option B. bit
28.
Option C. bit
19.
Correct Answer is. bit
19.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. The BCD data field of ARINC 429 is
contained within bits.
Option A. 11-29.
Option B. 11-28.
Option C. 1-8.
Correct Answer is. 11-29.
Explanation. Binary
Word is 11 - 28. BCD Word is 11 - 29.
Question Number. 60. ARINC 629 is transmitted using.
Option A. single
wire for each transmitter.
Option B. fibre
optics or twisted pair of wires.
Option C. SWG 28
wire.
Correct Answer is. fibre
optics or twisted pair of wires.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 148.
Question Number. 61. A simplex system has.
Option A. 1
transmitter and multiple receivers.
Option B. 1 bus
controller and 1 remote terminal.
Option C. 1 bus
controller and multiple receivers.
Correct Answer is. 1
transmitter and multiple receivers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. To create a bi-directional communications
link within an ARINC 429 system.
Option A. four
databuses are required.
Option B. only
one databus is required.
Option C. two
databuses are required.
Correct Answer is. two
databuses are required.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 63. Why does an ARINC databus system send
data to LRUs in series?.
Option A. Saves
weight.
Option B. More
information can be sent.
Option C. Takes
less time.
Correct Answer is. Saves
weight.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 146.
Question Number. 64. Can an LRU transmit and receive on more
than one 629 bus?.
Option A. Yes.
Option B. Only
if paralleled.
Option C. No.
Correct Answer is. Yes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 65. ARINC 629 LRUs transmit.
Option A. when
addressed.
Option B. when
signal gap is sensed.
Option C. when
terminal gap is sensed.
Correct Answer is. when
terminal gap is sensed.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 149.
Question Number. 66. An ARINC 429 BCD word occupies bits
11-29, if 11-15 are filled with padders then the LSB of the word will be.
Option A. 11.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 29.
Correct Answer is. 16.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics, Eismin Page 147.
Question Number. 67. A simplex system has.
Option A. one
transmitter, many receivers.
Option B. a bus
controller and separate controller.
Option C. one
transmitter, one receiver.
Correct Answer is. one
transmitter, many receivers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 68. In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing
heading is 320, this is represented in bits 1- 8 as.
Option A. 01011001.
Option B. 00001011.
Option C. 01101000.
Correct Answer is. 00001011.
Explanation. Octal
320 converted to binary, and reversed.
Question Number. 69. In ARINC 629 aperiodic mode, LRUs
transmit in order of.
Option A. longest
terminal gap to shortest terminal gap.
Option B. power
up.
Option C. shortest
terminal gap to longest terminal gap.
Correct Answer is. shortest
terminal gap to longest terminal gap.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. ARINC 629, aperiodic mode is used.
Option A. for
landing and approach operation.
Option B. for
normal operation.
Option C. for
database loads.
Correct Answer is. for
database loads.
Explanation. B777 MM
23-91-00 pg 41. Periodic mode is for normal operation. Aperiodic mode is for
non-normal operation and large information transfer such as database loads and
operating software loads.
Question Number. 71. How is ARINC 429 bi-directional data
transfer achieved?.
Option A. Via a
current mode coupler.
Option B. Using
two data buses.
Option C. Via a
twisted pair of shielded cables.
Correct Answer is. Using
two data buses.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 72. The data format use to transmit signal to
flight data recorder.
Option A. Harvard
bi-phase 12 bit.
Option B. Bi-Polar
RZ 12 bit.
Option C. Manchester
2 bi-phase 12 bit.
Correct Answer is. Harvard
bi-phase 12 bit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 73. The output voltage of ARINC 429 signal
is.
Option A. +5v.
Option B. +10v
to -10v. H73.
Option C. -5v.
Correct Answer is. +10v
to -10v. H73.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 74. An ARINC 629 label word is.
Option A. 10
bits.
Option B. 12
bits.
Option C. 8
bits.
Correct Answer is. 12
bits.
Explanation. 12-bit
label field, 4-bit label extension, single parity, 3-bit time hi-lo synch
pulse. 20 bit in total.
Question Number. 75. The T/R of ARINC 629 is.
Option A. Encoder
/ decoder.
Option B. Multiplex
/ demultiplex.
Option C. switching.
Correct Answer is. Multiplex
/ demultiplex.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 76. Terminal gap in ARINC 629 is.
Option A. always
the same period.
Option B. flexible.
Option C. can be
changed by adjusting the rx/tx software.
Correct Answer is. can
be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th Ed, pg149.
Question Number. 77. How does ARINC 629 bus transmit and
receive information?.
Option A. Sockets
and pins.
Option B. Inductive
coupling.
Option C. Optical
coupling.
Correct Answer is. Inductive
coupling.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 78. What is ARINC 561 used for?.
Option A. To
specify LRU pin-outs.
Option B. To
specify Radio Comms data bus.
Option C. To
specify Flight Data Recorder data bus.
Correct Answer is. To
specify Radio Comms data bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. What is the purpose of the parity bit on
an ARINC 429 bus?.
Option A. To
indicate if the data is analogue.
Option B. To
indicate that the data is digital.
Option C. To
indicate to the receiver that the data is valid.
Correct Answer is. To
indicate to the receiver that the data is valid.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 80. ARINC 429 is.
Option A. Single
Source Multiple Sink System.
Option B. Multiple
Source Multiple Sink system.
Option C. Single
Source Single Sink system.
Correct Answer is. Single
Source Multiple Sink System.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 81. What is the purpose of intermediate
production breaks in ARINC 429 or 629 Data cables?.
Option A. Cables
are only manufactured 40 feet long.
Option B. To
allow maintenance personnel to divide the right and left system buses into two
parts for easy removal and installation.
Option C. To
allow connection of new cables to the existing ones in case of a modification.
Correct Answer is. To
allow maintenance personnel to divide the right and left system buses into two
parts for easy removal and installation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 82. Where is the parity bit installed in a
data word?.
Option A. Front.
Option B. End
MSB.
Option C. Middle.
Correct Answer is. End
MSB.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. RZ bi-polar modulation consists of bits
which are one of __________ states?.
Option A. Eight.
Option B. Two.
Option C. Three.
Correct Answer is. Three.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 84. In the ARINC 429 digital information
transfer system, data may travel in:.
Option A. both
directions on the same bus simultaneously.
Option B. one
direction only.
Option C. both
directions on the same bus sequentially by time multiplexing.
Correct Answer is. one
direction only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. An ARINC 629 data word.
Option A. includes
an 8 bit label and a 16 bit data field.
Option B. has
only 20 bits.
Option C. comprises
up to 256 data bits.
Correct Answer is. has
only 20 bits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 86. In an ARINC 429 digital word bit number
32 is used for.
Option A. terminating
the data field.
Option B. checking
parity.
Option C. identifying
word type.
Correct Answer is. checking
parity.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 87. What connects an LRU to the Bus Coupler
in an ARINC 629 Data Bus?.
Option A. Patch
Cord.
Option B. Stub
Cable.
Option C. Interconnect
Cable.
Correct Answer is. Stub
Cable.
Explanation. NIL.
05.05a. Logic Circuits.
Question Number. 1. What is the equivalent of this gate?.
Option A. =
(NOT-A + NOT-B).
Option B. = (A +
B)NOT.
Option C. =
(A.B)NOT.
Correct Answer is. =
(NOT-A + NOT-B).
Explanation. Draw
the truth table for the NAND gate, then draw the truth tables for each answer
in turn until you get one to match.
Question Number. 2. A NOR gate with both inputs inverted
becomes a.
Option A. NAND
gate.
Option B. AND
gate.
Option C. OR
gate.
Correct Answer is. AND
gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. Adding invertors to the two inputs of
an AND gate makes a.
Option A. OR
gate.
Option B. NOR
gate.
Option C. NAND
gate.
Correct Answer is. NOR
gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. This truth table is for a.
Option A. OR
gate.
Option B. AND
gate.
Option C. NAND
gate.
Correct Answer is. AND
gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. Which logic gate can be represented as
a parallel circuit?.
Option A. OR
gate.
Option B. Exclusive
OR gate.
Option C. NAND
gate.
Correct Answer is. OR
gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Making an inverter from a NAND or NOR
gate is achieved by.
Option A. connecting
the inputs.
Option B. inverting
the input.
Option C. connecting
two in series.
Correct Answer is. connecting
the inputs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. An AND gate output is 1 when inputs
are.
Option A. both
1.
Option B. both
0.
Option C. 1 and
0.
Correct Answer is. both
1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. What sort of gate requires two positive
voltages to operate?.
Option A. AND.
Option B. OR.
Option C. NOT.
Correct Answer is. AND.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. When will a NAND gate give logic 0 at
the output?.
Option A. When
both inputs are at 1.
Option B. When
the inputs are different.
Option C. When
both inputs are at 0.
Correct Answer is. When
both inputs are at 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Which logic gate has this truth table?.
Option A. NOT.
Option B. NAND.
Option C. Exclusive
OR.
Correct Answer is. Exclusive
OR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Which logic gate can be represented as a
parallel circuit?.
Option A. Exclusive
OR.
Option B. NAND.
Option C. OR.
Correct Answer is. OR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. What is this truth table?.
Option A. NOR
gate.
Option B. NOT
gate.
Option C. AND
gate.
Correct Answer is. AND
gate.
Explanation.
Question Number. 13. What sort of gate is this?.
Option A. NOT
gate.
Option B. NOR
gate.
Option C. Or
gate.
Correct Answer is. NOR
gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. The output of a NOT gate is logic 1. The
input is.
Option A. logic
0.
Option B. logic
1.
Option C. both
logic 1.
Correct Answer is. logic
0.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. When the voltage that represents a logic
1 state is less than the voltage that represents a logic 0 state, the logic
being used is.
Option A. either
positive or negative.
Option B. positive.
Option C. negative.
Correct Answer is. negative.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. The output of an AND gate having two
inputs A and B is logic 1. The two inputs will have the logic states of.
Option A. A = 0,
B = 0.
Option B. A = 1,
B = 0.
Option C. A = 1,
B = 1.
Correct Answer is. A
= 1, B = 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. The output of an OR gate having two
inputs A and B is logic 0. The two inputs will have the logic states of.
Option A. A = 1,
B = 0.
Option B. A = 0,
B = 1.
Option C. A = 0,
B = 0.
Correct Answer is. A
= 0, B = 0.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. What is this symbol?.
Option A. Exclusive
AND gate.
Option B. Exclusive
NOR gate.
Option C. Exclusive
OR gate.
Correct Answer is. Exclusive
OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. What Logic Gate does this switch circuit
indicate?.
Option A. NOR
gate.
Option B. AND
gate.
Option C. OR
gate.
Correct Answer is. OR
gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. Which logic gate has both inputs high to
get an output?.
Option A. AND
gate.
Option B. OR
gate.
Option C. NAND
gate.
Correct Answer is. AND
gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. A NAND and NOR to become a NOT gate have.
Option A. inputs
inverted.
Option B. outputs
inverted.
Option C. inputs
connected together.
Correct Answer is. inputs
connected together.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. An AND gate with inverted inputs and an
inverted output is equivalent to.
Option A. an AND
gate.
Option B. a NOR
gate.
Option C. an OR
gate.
Correct Answer is. an
OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. Logic gates internal operating mechanisms
are produced from.
Option A. thin
film resistors.
Option B. transistors.
Option C. diodes.
Correct Answer is. transistors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue
system by (where Q is an output of a latch / flip-flop).
Option A. switch
closed / light off / Not Q.
Option B. positive
/ magnetised / Q.
Option C. switch
open / light on / Q.
Correct Answer is. positive
/ magnetised / Q.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. To get logic 1 using this gate.
Option A. A and
B = 0.
Option B. A or B
= 1.
Option C. A and
B = 1.
Correct Answer is. A
and B = 0.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. To get logic 1 using this gate.
Option A. A and
B = 1.
Option B. A or B
= 1.
Option C. A and
B = 0.
Correct Answer is. A
and B = 0.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. What logic gate would this circuit
represent?.
Option A. NAND
Gate.
Option B. NOR
gate.
Option C. AND
gate.
Correct Answer is. AND
gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. What type of gate is this?.
Option A. NAND.
Option B. NOT.
Option C. E-OR.
Correct Answer is. E-OR.
Explanation. E-OR is
another name for XOR.
Question Number. 28. What sort of gate requires two negative
input voltages to operate?.
Option A. OR.
Option B. NAND.
Option C. NOT.
Correct Answer is. NAND.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. What sort of gate requires two negative
input voltages to operate?.
Option A. NAND.
Option B. OR.
Option C. NOT.
Correct Answer is. NAND.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. In Positive Logic representation.
Option A. both
states have same positive voltages but stage 1 has more current.
Option B. state
1 is more positive than state 0.
Option C. state
0 is more positive than state 1.
Correct Answer is. state
1 is more positive than state 0.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. Switching within logic gates is normally
achieved with the use of.
Option A. BTB's.
Option B. relays.
Option C. diodes.
Correct Answer is. diodes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 31. The truth table of A =0011 B=0101 and
=0110 indicates that the logic device is.
Option A. an
ECLUSIVE OR gate.
Option B. a NOR
gate.
Option C. an AND
gate.
Correct Answer is. an
ECLUSIVE OR gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. What input is required to activate the
relay shown?.
Option A. A=0
B=1.
Option B. A=1
B=0.
Option C. A=1
B=1.
Correct Answer is. A=1
B=1.
Explanation. NIL.
.
Question Number. 33. A NAND gate has inputs A and B and output
C. If the output (c) was zero, what are the inputs?.
Option A. A=1
B=1.
Option B. A=0
B=0.
Option C. A=1
B=0.
Correct Answer is. A=1
B=1.
Explanation. NIL.
05.05b. Logic Circuits.
Question Number. 1. The 'fan-in' in a gate is the.
Option A. number
of inputs to a gate.
Option B. number
of outputs from a gate.
Option C. number
of inputs and outputs of a gate.
Correct Answer is. number
of inputs to a gate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. What does the logic circuit shown
represent?.
Option A. Full
Adder Circuit.
Option B. Half
adder circuit.
Option C. Multi-bit
adder.
Correct Answer is. Full
Adder Circuit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. What would be the outputs of this
circuit, if A=0 B=0 C=1.
Option A. 1, 1.
Option B. 0, 1.
Option C. 0, 0.
Correct Answer is. 0,
1.
Explanation. Check
out the table on http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html. http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html
Question Number. 4. What would be the outputs of this
circuit, if A=1 B=1 C=0.
Option A. 0, 1.
Option B. 1, 1.
Option C. 1, 0.
Correct Answer is. 1,
0.
Explanation. Check
out the table on http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html. http://www.play-hookey.com/digital/adder.html
Question Number. 5. Tristate devices are found.
Option A. on
input circuits.
Option B. on
output circuits.
Option C. on
both input and output circuits.
Correct Answer is. on
input circuits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. A full adder has.
Option A. three
inputs and two outputs.
Option B. two
inputs and one output.
Option C. three
inputs and one output.
Correct Answer is. three
inputs and two outputs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. What is the Boolean Algebra for the
circuit shown?.
Option A. 
.
.
Option B. 
.
.
Option C. 
.
.
Correct Answer is. .
.
Explanation. NIL.
05.06a. Basic Computer Structure.
Question Number. 1. In a computer memory device, which one
of these has the slowest access time?.
Option A. floppy
disk.
Option B. magnetic
tape.
Option C. 8mm
video tape.
Correct Answer is. magnetic
tape.
Explanation. 8mm
video tape is not (and never has been) a computer memory device.
Question Number. 2. The advantage of DRAM over SRAM is.
Option A. are
cheaper to manufacture.
Option B. has a
larger storage capacity per chip area.
Option C. they
operate slower.
Correct Answer is. has
a larger storage capacity per chip area.
Explanation. NIL. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DRAM
Question Number. 3. A BYTE is usually.
Option A. an 8
bit word.
Option B. a six
bit word.
Option C. a 12
bit word.
Correct Answer is. an
8 bit word.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. What is the definition of baud rate?.
Option A. 1 word
per second.
Option B. 1 byte
per second.
Option C. 1 bit
per second.
Correct Answer is. 1
bit per second.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. Which would have the least components?.
Option A. ALU.
Option B. CPU.
Option C. LSI.
Correct Answer is. ALU.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. What is a baud?.
Option A. A bit
of data.
Option B. A
block of data.
Option C. A byte
of data.
Correct Answer is. A
bit of data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. In a bi-stable memory circuit.
Option A. the
memory is retained indefinably.
Option B. the
memory is lost as soon as power is removed.
Option C. the
memory needs to be refreshed constantly, even when power is on.
Correct Answer is. the
memory is lost as soon as power is removed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. What is the advantage of series over
parallel message sending?.
Option A. Only
one pair of conductors.
Option B. More
information sent.
Option C. Quicker.
Correct Answer is. Only
one pair of conductors.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 146.
Question Number. 9. A typical example of a mass storage
memory device which is also WORM (Write Once Read Many) is.
Option A. an IC.
Option B. a
magnetic tape.
Option C. a CD
Rom.
Correct Answer is. a
CD Rom.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. A computer using RAM would utilize.
Option A. magnetic
tape.
Option B. a
compact disc.
Option C. an
integrated circuit (chip).
Correct Answer is. an
integrated circuit (chip).
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 146.
Question Number. 11. Magnetic materials are used in.
Option A. ROMs
only.
Option B. some
RAMs.
Option C. EPROM.
Correct Answer is. some
RAMs.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. A typical example of a mass storage
device is.
Option A. IC.
Option B. magnetic
tape.
Option C. CD.
Correct Answer is. CD.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. What is EPROM?.
Option A. Enhanced
programmable read only memory.
Option B. Erasable
programmable read only memory.
Option C. Erasable
programming read only module.
Correct Answer is. Erasable
programmable read only memory.
Explanation. Basic
Electronics Malcolm Plant Page 87E.
Question Number. 14. How many bytes can be carried in a 32bit
word?.
Option A. 8
bytes.
Option B. 4
bytes.
Option C. 2
bytes.
Correct Answer is. 4
bytes.
Explanation. 8 bits
per byte.
Question Number. 15. A common used material in computer manufacturing
is.
Option A. ferrite
material.
Option B. permeamag
material.
Option C. ferromagnetic
material.
Correct Answer is. ferromagnetic
material.
Explanation. Ferromagnetic
material is that which hard-drives and floppy drives are made from.
Question Number. 16. Ferrite medium is used for computer
memory because.
Option A. data
is stored after the power is removed.
Option B. it is
light.
Option C. it has
low eddy current losses.
Correct Answer is. data
is stored after the power is removed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. Data is usually stored in.
Option A. RAM.
Option B. ROM.
Option C. EEPROM.
Correct Answer is. ROM.
Explanation. NIL.
05.06b. Basic Computer Structure.
Question Number. 1. Registers are used in digital computers
to.
Option A. store
bits of information in a permanent memory.
Option B. store
a limited amount of information on a temporary basis.
Option C. keep a
count of operations completed.
Correct Answer is. store
a limited amount of information on a temporary basis.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. A computer consist of at least the
C.P.U and.
Option A. memory
and input & output port.
Option B. memory,
ALU, input & output port.
Option C. register
section, ALU, timing and control section.
Correct Answer is. memory
and input & output port.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 144, and Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 153 Fig 6.1.
Question Number. 3. A basic computer would consist of.
Option A. register
section, ALU and timing and control section.
Option B. memory,
input/output ports and CPU.
Option C. RAM/ROM
and input/output ports.
Correct Answer is. memory,
input/output ports and CPU.
Explanation. Pallett
Aircraft instuments & Integrated Systems Page 153.
Question Number. 4. DRAM.
Option A. requires
a refreshing charge.
Option B. memory
is stored when power supply is removed.
Option C. it
does not require a refreshing charge.
Correct Answer is. requires
a refreshing charge.
Explanation. NIL. http://computer.howstuffworks.com/ram4.htm
Question Number. 5. Bubble memory stores data on.
Option A. magnetic
tape.
Option B. semiconductor
material.
Option C. ferrite
core.
Correct Answer is. semiconductor
material.
Explanation. NIL. www.tpub.com/neets/book22/92a.htm
Question Number. 6. An EPROM.
Option A. is
non-volatile memory.
Option B. requires
constant refreshing.
Option C. is
erased after reading.
Correct Answer is. is
non-volatile memory.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. A computer requires to operate, a.
Option A. address
bus, a data bus only.
Option B. data
bus, a control bus, a address bus.
Option C. data
bus, a control bus only.
Correct Answer is. data
bus, a control bus, a address bus.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. data bus, a control bus only.
Option A. DRAM.
Option B. SRAM.
Option C. RAM.
Correct Answer is. SRAM.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. A computer is acting in real time when.
Option A. the
CPU requires a clock pulse.
Option B. the
output is equal to the input of data.
Option C. the
time to access memory is equal to the data speed in.
Correct Answer is. the
output is equal to the input of data.
Explanation. NIL.
05.07. Microprocessors.
Question Number. 1. What is the function of a status
register in a microprocessor?.
Option A. To
indicate the status of the processor.
Option B. In the
ALU, to store the position of the program during an interrupt.
Option C. To
synchronize the clock pulse.
Correct Answer is. To
indicate the status of the processor.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.i-garden.org/docu/cecs/cs14.pdf
Question Number. 2. What is the purpose of the ALU?.
Option A. To
store data being used by the CPU.
Option B. The
part of the CPU unit where arithmetic & logic operations are carried out.
Option C. To
convert serial into parallel data.
Correct Answer is. The
part of the CPU unit where arithmetic & logic operations are carried out.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition Page 146.
Question Number. 3. The CPU consists of.
Option A. ALU,
timing and control section, register.
Option B. register
and arithmetic logic unit only.
Option C. register,
timing and control section only.
Correct Answer is. ALU,
timing and control section, register.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 153 Basic CPU,. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 145.
Question Number. 4. How is multiplication achieved in an
ALU?.
Option A. by
addition.
Option B. by
subtraction.
Option C. by
coupling.
Correct Answer is. by
addition.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. The smallest operation of a CPU is.
Option A. the
processor cycle.
Option B. the
processor sub-cycle.
Option C. the
time cycle.
Correct Answer is. the
time cycle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Where does the clock signal in a
microprocessor come from?.
Option A. ALU.
Option B. Memory.
Option C. Control
unit.
Correct Answer is. Control
unit.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett. Page 153.
Question Number. 7. Where is the operating program for the
CPU stored?.
Option A. Control
unit.
Option B. ALU.
Option C. Memory
unit.
Correct Answer is. Memory
unit.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett. Page 153.
Question Number. 8. A priority encoder.
Option A. outputs
the highest input.
Option B. outputs
the selected input.
Option C. outputs
the lowest input.
Correct Answer is. outputs
the highest input.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. The smallest operation possible in a
computer is the.
Option A. timing
cycle.
Option B. processor
sub-cycle.
Option C. processor
cycle.
Correct Answer is. timing
cycle.
Explanation. Also
known as the clock pulse.
Question Number. 10. A clock pulse in processor equipment.
Option A. is to
synchronise everything.
Option B. is
used for the maintenance tests.
Option C. is to
give the correct timing when calculations are made.
Correct Answer is. is
to synchronise everything.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. In a computer, the code that fetches
correct data and feeds it to the ALU is called.
Option A. the
instruction set.
Option B. ARINC.
Option C. the
computer program.
Correct Answer is. the
instruction set.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/I/instruction.html
Question Number. 12. A computer processor has within it.
Option A. register,
buffer, data bus.
Option B. ALU,
register, memory.
Option C. ALU,
control section, register.
Correct Answer is. ALU,
control section, register.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. The arithmetic logic unit (ALU) in a
central processor unit (CPU) carries out.
Option A. addition,
subtraction, multiplication and division.
Option B. computations
as instructed.
Option C. timing
and synchronisation.
Correct Answer is. addition,
subtraction, multiplication and division.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. The CPU requires a clock to determine.
Option A. the
number of bits on the highway.
Option B. the
speed of operation.
Option C. the
date and time.
Correct Answer is. the
speed of operation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. An ALU performs the following.
Option A. Arithmetic,
Logic, Branch and Move Operations.
Option B. Input/Output
operations, Arithmetic, Logic Functions.
Option C. Arithmetic,
Logic, Branch and Find Operations.
Correct Answer is. Input/Output
operations, Arithmetic, Logic Functions.
Explanation. NIL.
05.08. Integrated Circuits.
Question Number. 1. What function do gates 1 and 2
perform?.
Option A. Full
adder.
Option B. Half
Adder.
Option C. Shift
Register.
Correct Answer is. Half
Adder.
Explanation. NIL. http://gs.fanshawec.ca/tlc/math270/2_7_Binary_Adders.htm
Question Number. 2. On an IC, pin 1 is to the left of the
notch. Which way are the pins numbered?.
Option A. Left
to right.
Option B. Anticlockwise.
Option C. Clockwise.
Correct Answer is. Anticlockwise.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.kpsec.freeuk.com/components/ic.htm
Question Number. 3. When 4 binary serial counters are
connected in cascade for frequency division, what division factor is required?.
Option A. 8.
Option B. 16.
Option C. 4.
Correct Answer is. 16.
Explanation. Each
serial counter changes its state once every 2 clock pulses. So 4 serial
counters divides by 2x2x2x2 = 16.
Question Number. 4. 3 binary counters in cascade. What is
the division?.
Option A. 32.
Option B. 8.
Option C. 16.
Correct Answer is. 8.
Explanation. Each
serial counter changes its state once every 2 clock pulses. So 3 serial
counters divides by 2x2x2 = 8.
Question Number. 5. Within a 3 bit frequency cascade,
division is to.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 8.
Correct Answer is. 8.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Very Large Scale Integrated (VLSI)
means the number of gates in a single IC is.
Option A. up to
10,000.
Option B. over
10,000.
Option C. up to
1000.
Correct Answer is. over
10,000.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. An encoder changes.
Option A. digital
to analogue.
Option B. analogue
to digital.
Option C. data
from one format to another.
Correct Answer is. data
from one format to another.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. An RS flip-flop with Q at 1 is said to
be.
Option A. set.
Option B. reset.
Option C. zero.
Correct Answer is. set.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. When a JK flip flop is used as a memory
device, what type of memory would it be?.
Option A. read-only.
Option B. non-volatile.
Option C. volatile.
Correct Answer is. volatile.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. In an RS flip flop, output is one. This
means it is.
Option A. intermediate.
Option B. reset.
Option C. set.
Correct Answer is. set.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 143.
Question Number. 11. An ALU is an example of.
Option A. MSI.
Option B. SSI.
Option C. LSI.
Correct Answer is. LSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. With a j-k flip flop which is the output
set.
Option A. q = 1.
Option B. q = 0.
Option C. either.
Correct Answer is. q
= 1.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Data is converted from serial to parallel
and parallel to serial by.
Option A. a
synchronous counter.
Option B. a
parallel register.
Option C. a
shift register.
Correct Answer is. a
shift register.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. A typical characteristic of a CMOS is.
Option A. high
power dissipation.
Option B. high
voltage handling.
Option C. low
power dissipation.
Correct Answer is. low
power dissipation.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 140.
Question Number. 15. The pins on an op amp are numbered.
Option A. anticlockwise.
Option B. clockwise.
Option C. cross
ways.
Correct Answer is. anticlockwise.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. A parallel register.
Option A. requires
a clock pulse for each bit.
Option B. reads
each bit to be stored simultaneously.
Option C. reads
the stored data when logic 0 is applied to the read line.
Correct Answer is. reads
each bit to be stored simultaneously.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. A device, which converts serial to
parallel and parallel to serial for arithmetical functions, is a.
Option A. Parallel
to serial and serial to parallel converter.
Option B. Shift
Register.
Option C. Multiplexer
and De-Multiplexer.
Correct Answer is. Shift
Register.
Explanation. Pulse
code modulation/parallel to seria.
Question Number. 18. What is the device used to convert Binary
Coded Decimal into separate supplies for a seven segment digital display?.
Option A. Multiplexer.
Option B. Decoder.
Option C. Demultiplexer.
Correct Answer is. Decoder.
Explanation. RS
catalogue...part number CA3161 (see www.RSwww.com website and enter the part
number in their search box).
Question Number. 19. Operation of a frequency counter is such
that.
Option A. it
compares the incoming waveform with standard sine waves.
Option B. it
detects incidences of peak value.
Option C. it
changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave.
Correct Answer is. it
changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics, Eismin Page 168.
Question Number. 20. An example of a small size integrated
circuit would be.
Option A. DIP
switch.
Option B. Control
Processor Unit.
Option C. ALU.
Correct Answer is. Control
Processor Unit.
Explanation. A DIP
switch is not an IC. ALU is an integrated part of the CPU. The 'Control
Processor Unit' is another term used for the 'Central Processor Unit (CPU)' or
sometimes a switching unit used in telegraphy (such as the touch-pad of a
telephone) - the latter would be an SSI (defined as containing up to 100
transistors or gates).
Question Number. 21. What is this?.
Option A. Counter.
Option B. Shift
register.
Option C. Multiplexer.
Correct Answer is. Multiplexer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. In a Master Slave, negative edge
triggered JK flip flop, both inputs are connected to logic 1. The output.
Option A. will
change state when the leading edge of the clock pulse is applied.
Option B. will
change state when the trailing edge of the clock pulse is applied.
Option C. does
not change state when a clock pulse is applied.
Correct Answer is. will
change state when the trailing edge of the clock pulse is applied.
Explanation. NIL.
05.09. Multiplexing.
Question Number. 1. A 12 bit 16 Channel encoder will use a
multiplexer with.
Option A. 3 bit
parallel address line.
Option B. 4 bit
parallel address line.
Option C. 2 wire
series address line.
Correct Answer is. 4
bit parallel address line.
Explanation. With 16
inputs, it needs 4 data select lines (to provide all 16 combinations).
Question Number. 2. How many address lines would be needed
for an 8 line MU?.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 4.
Correct Answer is. 3.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. In a MU, how is parallel converted to
serial?.
Option A. By way
of a shift register.
Option B. By way
of an encoder.
Option C. By way
of a demultiplexer.
Correct Answer is. By
way of a shift register.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. A multiplexer.
Option A. takes
many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission output.
Option B. takes
many signals in and puts these in a parallel transmission on the output.
Option C. takes
one signal in and converts it to a parallel transmission output.
Correct Answer is. takes
many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission output.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. A multiplexer in test equipment could
be used for.
Option A. frequency
divider.
Option B. analogue
to digital converter.
Option C. digital
to analogue converter.
Correct Answer is. frequency
divider.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. An 8 data input multiplexer has how
many Data Select lines.
Option A. 8.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 3.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. The signal sent between a MU/DEMU is
controlled by.
Option A. clock.
Option B. the
ALU.
Option C. control
unit.
Correct Answer is. control
unit.
Explanation. NIL.
05.10. Fibre Optics.
Question Number. 1. Some of the advantages of fibre optic
cable over copper cables are.
Option A. non
conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, more robust, cheap.
Option B. smaller
in size and weight, non conductive, higher security and higher bandwidth.
Option C. non
conductive, smaller in size and weight, easy to manufacture and assemble and
higher security.
Correct Answer is. smaller
in size and weight, non conductive, higher security and higher bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 2. A fibre optic cable consists of.
Option A. a
silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index.
Option B. a
silica glass core with a cladding having a higher refractive index.
Option C. a
plastic core with a cladding having a higher refractive index.
Correct Answer is. a
silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index.
Explanation. NIL. www.commspecial.com/fiberguide
Question Number. 3. Fibre optic cables.
Option A. are
immune to EMI.
Option B. attenuate
EMI.
Option C. are
susceptible to EMI.
Correct Answer is. are
immune to EMI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. Two connected fibre optic cable ends
are parallel but not quite touching. This is called.
Option A. end to
end coupling.
Option B. lens
connector.
Option C. end
fire coupling.
Correct Answer is. end
to end coupling.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. A disadvantage of a fibre optic cable
is.
Option A. couplings
susceptible to ingress of fluid.
Option B. end
terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination.
Option C. shallow
bend radius allowed.
Correct Answer is. end
terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination.
Explanation. NIL. www.commspecial.com/fiberguide.htm
Question Number. 6. What kind of light is used in a fibre
optic systems?.
Option A. Infrared.
Option B. Visible.
Option C. Ultraviolet.
Correct Answer is. Infrared.
Explanation. NIL. www.floti.bell.ac.uk/MathsPhysics/light.htm
Question Number. 7. Fibreoptic data is sent by.
Option A. modulating
the frequency of a laser beam.
Option B. a
strobe light.
Option C. modulating
the frequency of a filament beam.
Correct Answer is. a
strobe light.
Explanation. Modulating
the frequency would change the colour of the light.
Question Number. 8. HIRF is prevented from entering a fibre
optic cable by.
Option A. using
an opto-isolator coupling.
Option B. grounding
the fibre at both ends.
Option C. enclosing
it in a metal braid.
Correct Answer is. using
an opto-isolator coupling.
Explanation. Although
a fiber optic cable is 'immune' from collecting HIRF, it can still transmit
HIRF which has been picked up by the source circuitry. An optoelectronic
isolator will filter out the HIRF prior to transmission.
Question Number. 9. Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is
checked by.
Option A. a
calibrated light source.
Option B. a
calibrated light source and an opto-power meter.
Option C. a
light source and an opto-power meter.
Correct Answer is. a
calibrated light source and an opto-power meter.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.tpub.com/neets/tm/109-13.htm
Question Number. 10. A fibreoptic data bus used on an
aircraft.
Option A. can
send only one message at a time.
Option B. can
transmit on several channels at the same time.
Option C. connects
non-essential systems only.
Correct Answer is. can
transmit on several channels at the same time.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Light travels along a fibre optic by.
Option A. refraction.
Option B. reflection.
Option C. dispersion.
Correct Answer is. reflection.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. What is the main disadvantage of a fibre
optic data bus?.
Option A. Less
strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and coaxial cable.
Option B. Expensive
to install.
Option C. Bend
radius and moisture ingress at connections.
Correct Answer is. Expensive
to install.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. A typical fibre optic connector is.
Option A. F-type
connector.
Option B. coupling
type, with lens fitted.
Option C. push-pull
connector.
Correct Answer is. coupling
type, with lens fitted.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. Which of the following is an
optoelectronic device?.
Option A. Triac.
Option B. Laser
Diode.
Option C. Thyristor.
Correct Answer is. Laser
Diode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. What is the advantage of a single mode
fibreoptic over ordinary wire?.
Option A. Not
prone to damage.
Option B. Large
bandwidth.
Option C. Small
bend radius.
Correct Answer is. Large
bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. A fibreoptic light source is normally.
Option A. a strobe
light.
Option B. a
filament lamp.
Option C. a
laser or LED.
Correct Answer is. a
laser or LED.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. The fibreoptic cable can be identified on
aircraft by its jacket colour which is.
Option A. purple.
Option B. yellow.
Option C. red.
Correct Answer is. purple.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. For a fibre optic cable connector that is
not regularly disconnected you would use the.
Option A. butt
type.
Option B. ball
lens type.
Option C. ceramic
lens type.
Correct Answer is. butt
type.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. What maintenance problems are associated
with fibreoptics?.
Option A. Corrosion.
Option B. Kinking
and contamination of connectors.
Option C. Earthing
faults.
Correct Answer is. Kinking
and contamination of connectors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. A fibreoptic data bus.
Option A. can
transmit several messages simultaneously.
Option B. is
only used for non essential messages.
Option C. can
only transmit 1 message at a time.
Correct Answer is. can
transmit several messages simultaneously.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. A fiberoptic cable to LRU connector
should be connected.
Option A. very
carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss.
Option B. using
torque-loaded pliers.
Option C. hand
tight only.
Correct Answer is. very
carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 22. Some of the advantages of fibreoptic
cable over copper cable are.
Option A. smaller
size and weight, non conductive, more rugged, higher security.
Option B. non
conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, higher bandwidth.
Option C. non
conductive, higher bandwidth, higher security, smaller size and weight.
Correct Answer is. non conductive, higher bandwidth, higher security, smaller size and weight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. In a single mode fibreoptic cable.
Option A. several
waves travel down the cable.
Option B. the
diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of the light used.
Option C. the
distortion of the signal is dependent on the length of cable.
Correct Answer is. the
diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of the light used.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. A semiconductor which emits photons and
releases electrons when stimulated by photons is called.
Option A. a
photodiode.
Option B. a
laser diode.
Option C. an
LED.
Correct Answer is. a
laser diode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. What does a fibreoptic star connection
do?.
Option A. Provides
a continuous loop of fibre interconnecting all nodes.
Option B. Provides
direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines emanating from the
central hub.
Option C. Shares
a common bandwidth of a common cable.
Correct Answer is. Provides
direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines emanating from the
central hub.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. A fibreoptic lens type coupling with lens
and integral LED compared to an end-fire coupling is.
Option A. more
efficient.
Option B. less
efficient.
Option C. equally
efficient.
Correct Answer is. more
efficient.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. Passive sensors in fibreoptics.
Option A. Passive
sensors in fibreoptics.
Option B. require
power for processing the signal before they send them down the fibre optic.
Option C. require
no power and they do not process signals.
Correct Answer is. process
the signal but do not require power.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. Optical fibre losses are due to.
Option A. absorption
only.
Option B. absorption,
scattering and reflection.
Option C. radiation,
absorption and reflection.
Correct Answer is. absorption,
scattering and reflection.
Explanation. Introduction
to Fiber Optics John Crisp Page 50.
Question Number. 29. The cone of acceptance is measured
between.
Option A. the
two outer angles.
Option B. the
two outer angles.
Option C. longitudinal
axis of the core and the outer angle.
Correct Answer is. longitudinal
axis of the core and the outer angle.
Explanation. Introduction
to Fiber Optics John Crisp Page 29.
Question Number. 30. Fibreoptic cables use.
Option A. refractive
outer shell.
Option B. reflective
inner shell.
Option C. reflective
outer shell.
Correct Answer is. refractive
outer shell.
Explanation. The
outer cladding is glass, so it is refractive (but less so than the core).
Cladding causes Total Internal Reflection (TIR), so question can be interpreted
in two ways.
Question Number. 31. In fibreoptic cable, signals are
separated by.
Option A. active
optic filter.
Option B. low
pass filter.
Option C. passive
optic filter.
Correct Answer is. active
optic filter.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Most fibreoptic connectors are designed
so.
Option A. the
receptacle has to be torqued to a designated value to ensure correct alignment.
Option B. the
connectors can not be over tightened.
Option C. the
connector can not be replaced on the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. the
connectors can not be over tightened.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. The light source used in fibreoptics is.
Option A. visible
light.
Option B. lower
bandwidth than visible light.
Option C. higher
bandwidth than visible light.
Correct Answer is. higher bandwidth than visible light.
Explanation. Introduction
to Fiber Optics J Crisp Page 18/19.
Question Number. 34. Light transmission in a fibreoptic cable
is due to.
Option A. repeated
internal reflection.
Option B. defraction
of the light.
Option C. refraction
of the light.
Correct Answer is. repeated
internal reflection.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. The name given to the joining of two
fibreoptic cables by aligning them carefully and bringing them into close
proximity of each other is.
Option A. Fusion.
Option B. Lens
Coupling.
Option C. End to
end.
Correct Answer is. End
to end.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. In a fibreoptic cable.
Option A. multiple
data signals can be sent down it at one time.
Option B. data
can only be sent in one direction.
Option C. only
one data signal can be sent down it at any one time.
Correct Answer is. multiple
data signals can be sent down it at one.
Explanation. Introduction
to Fiber Optics John Crisp page 189.
Question Number. 37. Fibreoptics relies on.
Option A. fibre
absorbing light.
Option B. light
escaping cladding.
Option C. light
reflecting off cladding.
Correct Answer is. light
reflecting off cladding.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 38. The 'light' emitted from a LED used
within a fibre-optic system will have a wavelength.
Option A. slightly
shorter then that of visible light.
Option B. equal
to that of visible light.
Option C. slightly
longer then that of visible light.
Correct Answer is. slightly
longer then that of visible light.
Explanation. Infrared
from 850nm. Visible light is 400 - 800 nm.
Question Number. 39. Sensors in a fibreoptic flight control
system.
Option A. require
processing to give output.
Option B. does
not require power.
Option C. require
power for processors.
Correct Answer is. require
power for processors.
Explanation. The
sensor is usually a photo-diode.
Question Number. 40. Fibreoptic systems can transmit data in.
Option A. in two
directions.
Option B. both
directions at the same time.
Option C. one
direction only.
Correct Answer is. both
directions at the same time.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. For high bandwidth high-speed fibreoptic
transmission what sort of cable would you use?.
Option A. Step
index.
Option B. Single
mode.
Option C. Graded
index.
Correct Answer is. Single
mode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. In fibreoptics the wavelength of the
light is.
Option A. more
than visible light.
Option B. equal
to that of visible light.
Option C. less
than visible light.
Correct Answer is. more
than visible light.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 43. What is the advantage of an ILD over an
LED when used as a light source in fibre optics?.
Option A. Lower
frequency range.
Option B. Lower
intensity.
Option C. Higher
bandwidth.
Correct Answer is. Lower
frequency range.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. Speed of light in a fibreoptic fibre.
Option A. increases
if it passes through material of higher refractive index.
Option B. is
always the same no matter what material it is.
Option C. is
never greater then the speed of light in free space.
Correct Answer is. is
never greater then the speed of light in free space.
Explanation. Fiber
Optics Communication and Other Applications Page 15.
Question Number. 45. The angle of incidence of a beam of light
in a fibreoptic cable will be.
Option A. twice
that of the cone of acceptance.
Option B. approximately
half that of the cone of acceptance.
Option C. parallel
with the end of the cable.
Correct Answer is. approximately
half that of the cone of acceptance.
Explanation. Fiber
Optics Communication and Other Applications Page 46/7. Presumably, this means
the MAIMUM angle of incidence.
Question Number. 46. In an optical fibre, the angle of
acceptance is.
Option A. 1/2
the signal wavelength.
Option B. equal
to the cone of acceptance.
Option C. 1/2
the cone of acceptance.
Correct Answer is.
equal to the cone of acceptance.
Explanation. Introduction
to Fiber Optics John Crisp page 29.
Question Number. 47. When using a TDR (time delay
reflectometer) the loss value of the cable is.
Option A. shown
by the curve on the screen.
Option B. set on
the TDR.
Option C. allowed
for in the calculation.
Correct Answer is. shown
by the curve on the screen.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. Common aircraft fibreoptics use.
Option A. modulating
intensity on direct read.
Option B. modulating
intensity on indirect read.
Option C. modulating
frequency on direct read.
Correct Answer is. modulating
intensity on direct read.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. What is the main cause of attenuation in
fibreoptics?.
Option A. Poor
termination.
Option B. Refractive
index.
Option C. Bends
in the cable.
Correct Answer is. Poor
termination.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 50. What is the advantage of a laser diode
over an LED?.
Option A. Greater
bandwidth.
Option B. Narrower
bandwidth.
Option C. There
are no advantages.
Correct Answer is. Narrower
bandwidth.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. A 'type A' fibre optic connector.
Option A. is
used when regular disconnection and re-connection of a cable is required.
Option B. produces
a larger light loss that a type B connector.
Option C. would
be used for connections not regularly disconnected.
Correct Answer is. would
be used for connections not regularly disconnected.
Explanation. NIL.
05.11. Electronic Displays.
Question Number. 1. The inside of a CRT consists of.
Option A. an
oxide coating and rare mercury gas.
Option B. a
phosphor coating and rare mercury gas.
Option C. iodine
and rare mercury gas.
Correct Answer is. a
phosphor coating and rare mercury gas.
Explanation. Pallett
- Aircraft Instruments Page 284.
Question Number. 2. CRT horizontal beam control is achieved
by a.
Option A. sinusoidal
wave.
Option B. square
wave.
Option C. sawtooth
wave.
Correct Answer is. sawtooth
wave.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. In a CRT, if the magnetic field is
parallel to the Y plates, what will be the direction of the electron beam
movement?.
Option A. Horizontal.
Option B. Vertical.
Option C. No
movement.
Correct Answer is. Vertical.
Explanation. The Y
plates lie horizontal. Use the right hand rule to work out the direction of
electron beam movement. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems, Pallett,
page 287.
Question Number. 4. Primary colours of a CRT are.
Option A. red,
green and yellow.
Option B. red,
blue and yellow.
Option C. red,
green and blue.
Correct Answer is. red,
green and blue.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. What are the effects of the X and Y
plates on a CRT?.
Option A. Y
plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontally.
Option B. X
plates move the beam vertically, Y plates move the beam horizontally.
Option C. X and
Y plates can move the beam in either direction.
Correct Answer is. Y
plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontally.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. EADI sky and ground display is provided
by.
Option A. synthetic
TV signals.
Option B. stroke
pulse.
Option C. raster
scan.
Correct Answer is. raster
scan.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 7. What frequency creates the raster
effect on a CRT?.
Option A. 50/60
Hz.
Option B. 250Hz.
Option C. 400
Hz.
Correct Answer is. 50/60
Hz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. The sweep waveform used on a
electromagnetic CRT is.
Option A. trapezoidal.
Option B. sinusoidal.
Option C. sawtooth.
Correct Answer is. trapezoidal.
Explanation. Do not
get confused with an electrostatic CRT. Electromagnetic CRT uses trapezoidal
waveform to overcome the impedance of the coil.
Question Number. 9. What shape does the waveform take to
counter the impedance effect of the coils in an electromagnetic controlled
CRT?.
Option A. Sawtooth.
Option B. Rectangular.
Option C. Trapezoid.
Correct Answer is. Trapezoid.
Explanation. Do not
get confused with an electrostatic CRT.
Question Number. 10. Magnetic deflection in a CRT is achieved
by.
Option A. a
sawtooth waveform.
Option B. a
trapezoidal waveform.
Option C. a
sinusoidal voltage.
Correct Answer is. a
trapezoidal waveform.
Explanation. Do not
get confused with electrostatic deflection (plates), which would be sawtooth.
Question Number. 11. The timebase in a CRT consists of.
Option A. an
amplifier and an oscillator.
Option B. an
oscillator only.
Option C. an
amplifier only.
Correct Answer is. an
amplifier and an oscillator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. What creates the raster effect on a CRT?.
Option A. Sawtooth
frequency.
Option B. Trapezoidal
frequency.
Option C. Sinusoidal
frequency.
Correct Answer is. Sawtooth
frequency.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. LCD screens are driven by.
Option A. AC
voltage.
Option B. variable
current DC voltage.
Option C. fixed
current DC voltage.
Correct Answer is. AC
voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. A Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) has the
advantage over a CRT that.
Option A. it
requires no cooling.
Option B. it displays
more colours.
Option C. it
requires less servicing.
Correct Answer is. it
requires no cooling.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. The release of a photon by another photon
is the principle of.
Option A. a
photo diode.
Option B. a
zener diode.
Option C. an
LED.
Correct Answer is. an
LED.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. If a magnetic field is parallel to the X
plates in a CRT, which way will the beam move?.
Option A. Vertically.
Option B. Horizontally.
Option C. Diagonally.
Correct Answer is. Horizontally.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. An LED display is.
Option A. monochrome
only.
Option B. red
and green.
Option C. high
definition.
Correct Answer is. monochrome
only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. An LCD display uses what type of power
supply?.
Option A. DC
voltage.
Option B. Continuous
AC.
Option C. Variable
level DC voltage.
Correct Answer is. Continuous
AC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. A beam deflection on EFIS displays are.
Option A. electrostatic.
Option B. electromagnetic.
Option C. solid
state.
Correct Answer is. electromagnetic.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 297.
Question Number. 20. The supply to an LCD is.
Option A. AC.
Option B. current
restricted DC.
Option C. voltage
restricted DC.
Correct Answer is. AC.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. An LED will emit light when.
Option A. it is
reverse biased.
Option B. either
forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is applied.
Option C. it is
forward biased.
Correct Answer is. it
is forward biased.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 121.
Question Number. 22. A CRT display has the advantage over an
LCD display of a.
Option A. brighter
clearer output.
Option B. more
energy efficient.
Option C. large
viewing angle.
Correct Answer is. large
viewing angle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. To display a circle on a CRT you use.
Option A. 2
square wave 90 degrees out of phase.
Option B. 2 sine
waves 180 degrees out of phase.
Option C. 2 sine
waves 90 degrees out of phase.
Correct Answer is. 2
sine waves 90 degrees out of phase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 24. To deflect the beam of a CRT
horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of the tube.
Option A. each
side.
Option B. top
and bottom.
Option C. one on
the side, one at the bottom.
Correct Answer is. top
and bottom.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 25. If the magnetic deflection plates produce
a magnetic field which is parallel to the horizontal then the trace is
deflected in.
Option A. circular
motion.
Option B. horizontal
axis.
Option C. vertical
axis.
Correct Answer is. vertical
axis.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. The most common CRT control for an EFIS
system screen is.
Option A. a
combined system.
Option B. an
electrostatic system.
Option C. an
electromagnetic system.
Correct Answer is. a
combined system.
Explanation. Boeing
757 MM 34-22-00 page 8 paragraph G (EADI), Section (2)........'It (the CRT)
utilizes magnetic deflection and electrostaic focus control.
Question Number. 27. L.E.D.s can give.
Option A. high
definition displays.
Option B. monochrome
displays only.
Option C. red
and green displays only.
Correct Answer is. monochrome
displays only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. At low ambient temperatures, an LCD
screen.
Option A. is
slower to update as data changes.
Option B. viewing
angle becomes larger.
Option C. loses
contrast.
Correct Answer is. is
slower to update as data changes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. Colour CRT shadow mask screen resolution
is.
Option A. 400
lines per square inch.
Option B. 84
triads.
Option C. 600
lines per scan.
Correct Answer is. 84
triads.
Explanation. See
http://www.lgeservice.com/monterms.html for definition of resolution (pixels
per inch) and triads. The actual figure of 84 is irrelevant (as there are many
different CRT resolutions). The question is asking whether you know the
definition of resolution. http://www.lgeservice.com
Question Number. 30. An LCD display.
Option A. has
three colours only.
Option B. is
monochrome.
Option C. has
infinite colours.
Correct Answer is. has
three colours only.
Explanation. An LCD
display uses only red, green and blue filters. By mixing them, it can get
different colours, but not an infinite amount.
Question Number. 31. A segmented configuration for the display
of alphanumeric data requires.
Option A. the
starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only.
Option B. 16
segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals.
Option C. at
least 13 segments for all upper and lower case letters.
Correct Answer is. 16
segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Electronic CRT beam display is used
typically in.
Option A. weather
radar indicators.
Option B. IRU
control display units.
Option C. distance
measuring indicators; digital counters.
Correct Answer is. weather
radar indicators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 33. In a colour cathode ray tube, how is the
phosphor arranged in the tube.
Option A. A
single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue.
Option B. A red
layer on the front with two green layers behind it.
Option C. Layers
of red, blue and green.
Correct Answer is. A
single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue.
Explanation. Success
in Electronics By Tom Duncan p285.
Question Number. 34. A colour LCD which is back lit has.
Option A. three
colours.
Option B. monochrome.
Option C. an
infinite amount of colours.
Correct Answer is. three
colours.
Explanation. LCDs
have 3 colours (RGB) which can be blended to make other colours (of limited
number).
Question Number. 35. A dot matrix/LED construction is.
Option A. 4*7 or
a 9*5 rolling end display.
Option B. 5*9 or
a 4*7 rolling end display.
Option C. 4*7 or
a 5*7 rolling end display.
Correct Answer is. 4*7
or a 9*5 rolling end display.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Pages 13 - 15 (Although, in the real
world, others are available too).
Question Number. 36. What are the advantages of an LCD display
over an LED?.
Option A. It is
brighter.
Option B. It
uses less current.
Option C. There
are no advantages.
Correct Answer is. It
uses less current.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. A seven segment display is used to.
Option A. display
alpha-numeric characters.
Option B. display
octal and decimal numbers only.
Option C. display
octal and binary numbers only.
Correct Answer is. display
octal and decimal numbers only.
Explanation. NIL. http://video-equipment.globalspec.com/LearnMore/Video_Imaging_Equipment/Meters_Readouts_Indicators/Digital_LED_Display
Question Number. 38. How are Alphanumeric Displays produced on
a CRT?.
Option A. By
Stroke pulse.
Option B. Raster
scanning.
Option C. by the
use of X & Y EM Coils.
Correct Answer is. By
Stroke pulse.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. The Shorter lead near the Flat portion of
an LED is the.
Option A. Cathode.
Option B. Anode.
Option C. Gate.
Correct Answer is. Cathode.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. Submarining' is.
Option A. caused
by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast moving images on
screen.
Option B. a CRT
screen defect which can usually be remedied by degaussing the screen.
Option C. the
process used to form liquid crystals into a flat screen.
Correct Answer is. caused
by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast moving images on
screen.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.fpc.fujitsu.com/www/penworld/technology.shtml?glossary
05.12. Electrostatic Sensitive Devices.
Question Number. 1. ESDS bags are sealed by.
Option A. ESDS
labels.
Option B. zip
locks.
Option C. twine
(100% cotton).
Correct Answer is. twine
(100% cotton).
Explanation. Boeing
manual says 100% cotton twine. Other manuals say ESDS label. However, it could
be considered that ESDS labels do not 'seal'.
Question Number. 2. What precautions are required when
removing ESDS equipment?.
Option A. Wear a
wrist strap connected to an approved ground point.
Option B. No
special precautions are required.
Option C. Keep
one hand on the airframe.
Correct Answer is. Wear
a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. A flight deck CRT LRU is being
replaced. What does the ESDS label indicate?.
Option A. Wrist
straps should be worn.
Option B. Do not
touch plug pins or leave them exposed.
Option C. Remove
power before connecting.
Correct Answer is. Do
not touch plug pins or leave them exposed.
Explanation. See
Pallet's Micro Electronics In Aircraft Systems or CAAIPs 9-4 para.7.1.3.
Question Number. 4. During an EFIS screen fit.
Option A. dont
touch terminals.
Option B. no
tooling is required.
Option C. use
bonding strap.
Correct Answer is. dont
touch terminals.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 5. With a relative humidity of 10% to 20%,
if you walked over a carpet what electrostatic voltage value would you expect
to see?.
Option A. 35,000
volts.
Option B. 6,000
volts.
Option C. 12,000
volts.
Correct Answer is. 35,000
volts.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. Before fitting a Printed Circuit Board
you should check the.
Option A. resistance
between skin and strap end plug is less than 10 megohms.
Option B. resistance
between skin and strap end plug is more than 1 megohms.
Option C. resistance
between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms.
Correct Answer is. resistance
between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms.
Explanation. CAAIP
Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1.
Question Number. 7. The resistance of the wrist strap used
as part of anti static precautions should be.
Option A. 0 -
200 ohm.
Option B. 20
megohm - 200 megohm.
Option C. 250
kilohm - 1.5 megohm.
Correct Answer is. 250
kilohm - 1.5 megohm.
Explanation. CAAIPs
Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1.
Question Number. 8. When handling PCB's labelled ESDS, what
precaution are taken?.
Option A. Do not
touch its pins as copper contamination can occur.
Option B. Isolate
electrical power before installing on Aircraft.
Option C. First
earth with aircraft then to it.
Correct Answer is. Isolate
electrical power before installing on Aircraft.
Explanation. Microelectronics
in Aircraft Systems. Pallett. Page 219.
Question Number. 9. After attaching a wrist strap to your
wrist (which is connected to aircraft ground), prior to removal of ESDS
equipment, the resistance measured.
Option A. between
your skin and the pin ground must be >1 megohms.
Option B. between
the strap and the pin ground must be <1 megohms.
Option C. between
the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms.
Correct Answer is. between
the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms.
Explanation. Answer
found in Boeing SWPM. 20-41-01 3(2) (e) Hold the red lead of the (test) meter
between the forefinger and the thumb. The acceptable range is less than
10,000,000 ohms. Lower limit of range however seems to vary. This reference
says >0.9 MΩ, but if anyone has a more definitive reference, please send it
in.
Question Number. 10. Which of the following ESDS devices can
withstand higher static electricity
voltage?.
Option A. MOSFET.
Option B. SCR.
Option C. ECL.
Correct Answer is. SCR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. A wrist band must be worn when working
with ESDS devices.
Option A. to
dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator.
Option B. to
prevent the operator from getting an electric shock.
Option C. to dissipate
static charge on the device.
Correct Answer is. to
dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. A humid atmosphere.
Option A. reduces
static charge.
Option B. eliminates
static charge.
Option C. has no
effect on the level of charge.
Correct Answer is. reduces
static charge.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. Electrostatic discharge occurs when.
Option A. the
ground lead on a wrist strap touches the skin.
Option B. materials
are rubbed together or pulled apart.
Option C. materials
of different potential are brought in close proximity to each other.
Correct Answer is. materials
of different potential are brought in close proximity to each other.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. Before removing an assembly from an
aircraft, with regards to HIRF, you must first ensure that there is minimum
current flow between.
Option A. the
assembly and the aircraft.
Option B. you
and the assembly.
Option C. you
and the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. you
and the assembly.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. When removing a PC card from an ESDS
assembly ensure a low current path between.
Option A. aircraft
and ground.
Option B. you
and the assembly.
Option C. you
and the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. you
and the aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
05.13. Software Management Control.
Question Number. 1. An aircraft system that, should it fail
due to a software error, would cause a significant reduction in safety margins
may also cause.
Option A. no
injuries to occupants.
Option B. injuries
to some occupants.
Option C. the
loss of the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. injuries
to some occupants.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12
or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced).
Question Number. 2. An aircraft system allocated a software
level of C that, should it fail due to a software error, may cause.
Option A. injuries
to some occupants.
Option B. injuries
to a large proportion of occupants.
Option C. no
injuries to occupants.
Correct Answer is. injuries
to some occupants.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12
or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy from the Tutorial
Support forums.
Question Number. 3. An aircraft system allocated a
Criticality Category of Hazardous has a
Software Level of.
Option A. A.
Option B. B.
Option C. C.
Correct Answer is. B.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12
or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy from the Tutorial
Support forums.
Question Number. 4. An aircraft system that, should it fail
due to a software error, would cause a slight increase in crew workload, has a
software level of.
Option A. D.
Option B. B.
Option C. C.
Correct Answer is. D.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12
or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy from the Tutorial
Support forums.
Question Number. 5. An aircraft system with a software
level of D, should it fail due to a software error, may cause the aircraft
safety margin to be.
Option A. slightly
decreased.
Option B. slightly
increased.
Option C. significantly
decreased.
Correct Answer is. slightly
decreased.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12
or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy from the Tutorial
Support forums.
Question Number. 6. If due to a software error in an
aircraft system that would cause injuries to some of the occupants, the system
has a software criticality category of.
Option A. major
effect.
Option B. hazardous
effect.
Option C. minor
effect.
Correct Answer is. major
effect.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12
or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy from the Tutorial
Support forums.
Question Number. 7. An aircraft system that, should it fail
due to a software error, would cause no injuries to occupants, has a
criticality category of.
Option A. major
effect.
Option B. minor
effect.
Option C. hazardous
effect.
Correct Answer is. minor
effect.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12
or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy from the Tutorial
Support forums.
Question Number. 8. Requirements for software control can
be found in.
Option A. JAR
AWO.
Option B. AWN
43.
Option C. JAR
OPS.
Correct Answer is. AWN
43.
Explanation. Old AWN
43 (Field Loadable Software) has been deleted at issue 133. Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 9. Software can be modified by.
Option A. the
manufacturer.
Option B. using
the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware.
Option C. licensed
avionics engineers.
Correct Answer is. using
the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. Who is responsible for producing the
operational program of the FMS?.
Option A. The
manufacturer.
Option B. The
pilot.
Option C. The
engineer.
Correct Answer is. The
manufacturer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. Software documentation procedures are
laid down in.
Option A. MOE.
Option B. JAA
Ops.
Option C. AWN
(45).
Correct Answer is. AWN
(45).
Explanation. AWN 45
has been deleted at issue 133. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 12. Control of software is carried out by.
Option A. the
aircraft manufacturers.
Option B. a
licensed engineer.
Option C. the
National Aviation Authority.
Correct Answer is. the
National Aviation Authority.
Explanation. Old AWN
45.
Question Number. 13. What is the definition of level one
software?.
Option A. Non-essential.
Option B. Essential.
Option C. Critical.
Correct Answer is. Critical.
Explanation. Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 14. Who can sign for a software update?.
Option A. Design
organization or the aircraft manufacturer.
Option B. Engineer.
Option C. Chief
pilot.
Correct Answer is. Engineer.
Explanation. Old AWN
43. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 15. What is the effect of a level 1 software
failure?.
Option A. Significant
reduction in safety margins.
Option B. Large
reduction in safety margins.
Option C. Loss
of aircraft and / or fatalities.
Correct Answer is. Loss
of aircraft and / or fatalities.
Explanation. Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 16. Software changes come under the
responsibility of.
Option A. the
engineer.
Option B. the
national aviation authority.
Option C. the
aircraft constructor.
Correct Answer is. the
aircraft constructor.
Explanation. AWN 45.
Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 17. Who can design new software?.
Option A. BCAR
section A8 approved company.
Option B. BCAR
section A1 approved company.
Option C. The
CAA.
Correct Answer is. BCAR
section A8 approved company.
Explanation. AWN45a
para 3.1.3 (BCAR section A sub section A8). Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document
Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 18. As far as a software product is
concerned.
Option A. the
'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product' phase.
Option B. the
'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the component.
Option C. the
'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM.
Correct Answer is. the
'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM.
Explanation. Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 19. AWN 43 requires that.
Option A. the
aircraft operator be responsible for software assessment.
Option B. the
CAA be responsible for software assessment.
Option C. the
aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment.
Correct Answer is. the
aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment.
Explanation. Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 20. Level 1 software failure.
Option A. is
defined as essential and will reduce safety margins.
Option B. is
defined as essential and may have a minor effect.
Option C. is
defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft.
Correct Answer is. is
defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft.
Explanation. Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 21. Requirements for configuration management
of software can be found in.
Option A. AWN 43.
Option B. JAR
Ops (M).
Option C. ATA
Chapter 46, Information Systems.
Correct Answer is. AWN
43.
Explanation. Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
Question Number. 22. Where would you find the rules regarding
upgrade of software?.
Option A. JAR
OPS.
Option B. The
aircraft manufacturer.
Option C. AWN
43.
Correct Answer is. AWN
43.
Explanation. Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.
05.14. Electromagnetic Environment.
Question Number. 1. In order to maintain HIRF protection,
bonding checks between airframe and electrical components carrying voltages
greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return should not exceed.
Option A. 0.05
ohm.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 1
megohm.
Correct Answer is. 1
ohm.
Explanation. CAAIPs
Leaflet 9-1 Table 1.
Question Number. 2. Ribbon cables effected by mutual
impedance and current loop leakage should be protected by.
Option A. earthing
each alternative conductor to separate point.
Option B. connecting
all conductors to a common earth.
Option C. shielding
each individual conductor.
Correct Answer is. earthing
each alternative conductor to separate point.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. To shield a fibre optic from EMI you
must.
Option A. earth
both transducer and couplings.
Option B. shield
it with a braided shield.
Option C. use an
opto-isolator.
Correct Answer is. use
an opto-isolator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure
HIRF protection by.
Option A. advising
operators of all points susceptible to deterioration due to corrosion, moisture
ingress, flexing etc.
Option B. designing
specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Option C. ensuring
all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
Correct Answer is. designing
specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Explanation. Understanding
HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.
Question Number. 5. Which of the following could be a
primary cause of HIRF protection failure?.
Option A. Broken
or missing static wicks.
Option B. Corrosion
on bonding leads.
Option C. Unserviceable
radio filters.
Correct Answer is. Unserviceable
radio filters.
Explanation. Understanding
HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.
Question Number. 6. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure
HIRF protection.
Option A. by
designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Option B. by
ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
Option C. by
advising the operator of parts of the aircraft susceptible to degradation due
to corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc.
Correct Answer is. by
designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Explanation. Understanding
HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.
Question Number. 7. HIRF protection of LRUs is provided by.
Option A. internally
shielded cables.
Option B. built
in filters and overvoltage circuits.
Option C. built
in filters only.
Correct Answer is. built
in filters and overvoltage circuits.
Explanation. Understanding
HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.
Question Number. 8. To stop earth loops forming, you would.
Option A. earth
both ends of the cable screen.
Option B. leave
both ends of the cable screen open circuit.
Option C. earth
only one end of the cable screen.
Correct Answer is. earth
only one end of the cable screen.
Explanation. NIL. http://www1.electusdistribution.com.au/images_uploaded/humloop.pdf
Question Number. 9. An aircraft may have been HIRF
affected.
Option A. A
bonding load check is required.
Option B. A
static wick check is required.
Option C. Test
all radio frequencies for interference.
Correct Answer is. A
static wick check is required.
Explanation. Understanding
HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.
Question Number. 10. Testing of HIRF on aircraft systems is
done.
Option A. by
periodically listening for interference on all systems.
Option B. at and
during production and testing (initial certification).
Option C. only
after a report of radio interference.
Correct Answer is. at
and during production and testing (initial certification).
Explanation. Understanding
HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.
Question Number. 11. When carrying out a bonding check on a
surface protected by anodic film.
Option A. the
film is conductive so no preparations are required.
Option B. the
anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact.
Option C. add a
bonding factor to the result of the test to account for the resistance of the
anodic film.
Correct Answer is. the
anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. When clamping cable looms containing
co-axial cables.
Option A. avoid
distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant.
Option B. the
clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart.
Option C. distortion
of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not affected.
Correct Answer is. avoid
distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. When incorporating an aerial cable it
must be.
Option A. in the
centre of the other wires.
Option B. outside
the other wires for easy access.
Option C. positioned
separately from the loom.
Correct Answer is. positioned
separately from the loom.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 14. When carrying out airframe bonding checks
as part of a program of HIRF prevention the airframe bonding resistance should
be less than.
Option A. 100
milliohms.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 50
milliohms.
Correct Answer is. 50
milliohms.
Explanation. CAAIP
Leaflet 9-1.
Question Number. 15. Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved
by.
Option A. shielding,
screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters.
Option B. coating
in a conductive paint.
Option C. enclosing
the system with same frequency and strength of which screening is done.
Correct Answer is. shielding,
screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. To reduce HIRF on radio equipment.
Option A. ensure
all static wicks are in place.
Option B. periodically
check bonding leads for condition.
Option C. transmit
on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are causing the
interference.
Correct Answer is. ensure
all static wicks are in place.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. For braided cables, the amount of
braiding.
Option A. must
conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least 50% of the
surface of the cable.
Option B. keeps
radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible
circuit.
Option C. is a
trade-off design feature.
Correct Answer is. keeps
radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible
circuit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. HIRF is acronym for.
Option A. Heavily
Ionised Radio Frequencies.
Option B. High
Intensity Radiated Field.
Option C. High
Intensity Radio Frequencies.
Correct Answer is. High
Intensity Radiated Field.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. HF aerials are protected against
lightning strike by.
Option A. current
mode coupler.
Option B. bus
terminal.
Option C. spark
gap.
Correct Answer is. spark
gap.
Explanation. NIL.
05.15. Typical Electronic/Digital Aircraft Systems .
Question Number. 1. An FMS system, besides controlling
navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides.
Option A. GPWS
warnings.
Option B. dedicated
status and warnings.
Option C. take-off
and landing warnings.
Correct Answer is. dedicated
status and warnings.
Explanation. The FMS
is not used for Take Off or Landing The GPWS warnings come from the GPWS
Computer.
Question Number. 2. The minimum standards for aircraft
instrumentation is set by.
Option A. CAA.
Option B. ICAO.
Option C. JAA.
Correct Answer is. JAA.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. EADI sky and ground display is provided
by.
Option A. raster
scan.
Option B. stroke
pulse.
Option C. synthetic
TV signals.
Correct Answer is. raster
scan.
Explanation. Pallett
- Aircraft Instruments Page 302 Fig. 12.5.
Question Number. 4. HSI heading is valid if the heading
flag is.
Option A. in
view.
Option B. green.
Option C. out of
view.
Correct Answer is. out
of view.
Explanation. Warning
flags 'in view' indicate failure. Normally the only coloured flag used is RED,
indicating failure.
Question Number. 5. MFD is the abbreviation for.
Option A. Multi
function display.
Option B. Mandatory
flight display.
Option C. Master
flight display.
Correct Answer is. Multi
function display.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 6. A TCAS uses the radar mile definition
in its calculations, which is.
Option A. 12.36
microsecond.
Option B. 6.18
microsecond.
Option C. 24.72
microsecond.
Correct Answer is. 12.36
microsecond.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.atis.org/tg2k/_radar_mile.html
Question Number. 7. GPS navigation uses a constellation of
satellites that is made up of.
Option A. 21
active and 3 spare.
Option B. 28
active and 7 spare.
Option C. 23
active and 5 spare.
Correct Answer is. 21
active and 3 spare.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. An IRS is only certifed for alingment
up to.
Option A. +88.45
and -88.45 degrees.
Option B. +78.25
and -78.25 degrees.
Option C. +60
and -60 degrees.
Correct Answer is. +78.25
and -78.25 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. The command bars on an ADI relate to.
Option A. roll
indications.
Option B. path
being followed.
Option C. path
required.
Correct Answer is. path
required.
Explanation. Pallett
- Aircraft Instruments Page 212.
Question Number. 10. ECAM has at its heart.
Option A. a
multi function symbol generator.
Option B. a
central maintenance computer.
Option C. ACARS.
Correct Answer is. a
multi function symbol generator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 11. The recording medium in an FDR is.
Option A. copper
foil coated with ferrite.
Option B. a high
density floppy disc.
Option C. magnetic
tape coated with ferrite.
Correct Answer is. magnetic
tape coated with ferrite.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 12. An FMS databank memory is updated.
Option A. every
365 days.
Option B. every
28 days.
Option C. every
32 days.
Correct Answer is. every
28 days.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 13. What does the CADC feed?.
Option A. cabin
pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.
Option B. Altimeter
/ FMS / secondary radar.
Option C. standby
altimeter / machmeter.
Correct Answer is. cabin
pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.
Explanation. Pallett
- Aircraft Instruments Page 179 Fig. 7.12.
Question Number. 14. In a Flight Management System (FMS), data
is input manually to the computing system through the.
Option A. Data
Acquisition Unit.
Option B. Electronic
Centralised Aircraft Monitoring control panel.
Option C. Control
and Display Unit.
Correct Answer is. Control
and Display Unit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 15. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the
number of satellites required to achieve a 3 dimensional fix is.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 4.
Correct Answer is. 4.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. In a Global Positioning System (GPS),
each satellite transmission identifies the satellite using a.
Option A. different
channel frequency.
Option B. pseudo
random code.
Option C. whisper
shout method.
Correct Answer is. pseudo
random code.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. In a Global Positioning System (GPS)
satellites below the Mask Angle are ignored as these may cause.
Option A. range
errors.
Option B. clock
errors.
Option C. ephemeris
errors.
Correct Answer is. range
errors.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 18. Information required by a Flight
Management System (FMS) to function correctly is indicated on the display by.
Option A. dashes.
Option B. a
flashing cursor.
Option C. boxes.
Correct Answer is. boxes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 19. A flight data recorder can obtain
information from aircraft instruments.
Option A. provided
there is adequate damping.
Option B. provided
there is adequate isolation.
Option C. by
direct connection to the instruments.
Correct Answer is. provided
there is adequate isolation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are.
Option A. pitot
and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out.
Option B. pitot
and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.
Option C. pitot
in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out.
Correct Answer is. pitot
and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. EICAS provides the following:.
Option A. Engine
parameters and engine warnings only.
Option B. Engine
parameters and system warnings only.
Option C. Engine
parameters only.
Correct Answer is. Engine
parameters and system warnings only.
Explanation. Pallett
- Aircraft Instruments Page 179 Fig. 7.12.
Question Number. 22. A central maintenance computer provides.
Option A. ground
and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer.
Option B. ground
and BITE testing using a portable control panel.
Option C. display
of system warnings and cautions.
Correct Answer is. ground
and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 23. The rising runway is positioned from
information derived from.
Option A. barometric
height.
Option B. radio
altimeter.
Option C. vertical
speed.
Correct Answer is. radio
altimeter.
Explanation. Boeing
Maintenance Training notes for B757.
Question Number. 24. Where are the Digital Flight Data
Recorder outputs supplied to?.
Option A. The
recording unit.
Option B. There
are no outputs.
Option C. Flight
instruments.
Correct Answer is. There
are no outputs.
Explanation. Information
recorded in the DFDR is only accessable in the shop.
Question Number. 25. FMS failure and warnings are.
Option A. EFIS
warnings only.
Option B. displayed
on EICAS.
Option C. engine
warnings only.
Correct Answer is. displayed
on EICAS.
Explanation. FMS
warnings are displayed on EICAS and EFIS, but the answers given are 'EICAS' or
'EFIS only' so for the purposes of this question the correct answer is EICAS.
Question Number. 26. Flight director command bars are moved to
the correct position by.
Option A. calibration.
Option B. position
feedback.
Option C. amplifier
gain.
Correct Answer is. position
feedback.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 27. What information is required before
completion of the alignment of an Inertial Navigation System?.
Option A. Aircraft
present position.
Option B. Heading
and attitude.
Option C. Aircraft
present position and heading.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft
present position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 28. IRS accelerometers are mounted.
Option A. 90° to
each other.
Option B. 45° to
each other.
Option C. 60° to
each other.
Correct Answer is. 90°
to each other.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. An FMS navigation database is updated.
Option A. once a
month.
Option B. every
28 days.
Option C. at the
operators request.
Correct Answer is. every
28 days.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. A single failure of a fly-by-wire system.
Option A. will
reduce operational heights and speeds.
Option B. will
limit the flight profile.
Option C. has no
effect on aircraft operation.
Correct Answer is. has
no effect on aircraft operation.
Explanation. Redundant
FBW systems will continue to fly the aircraft.
Question Number. 31. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in
turbulent conditions will result in.
Option A. spoilers
moving symmetrically upwards.
Option B. ailerons
moving symmetrically upwards.
Option C. ailerons
and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
Correct Answer is. ailerons
and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by.
Option A. spoilers
and ailerons.
Option B. ailerons.
Option C. spoilers.
Correct Answer is. spoilers
and ailerons.
Explanation. Automatic
Flight Control, Pallett and Coyle Page 296.
Question Number. 33. The movement of fly-by-wire control
surfaces are.
Option A. hydraulically
controlled and electrically actuated.
Option B. both
electrically controlled and electrically actuated.
Option C. electrically
controlled and hydraulically actuated.
Correct Answer is. electrically
controlled and hydraulically actuated.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. An FMS system, besides controlling
navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides.
Option A. dedicated
status warnings.
Option B. take-off
and landing warnings.
Option C. GPWS
warnings.
Correct Answer is. dedicated
status warnings.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 35. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators. What
is the purpose of the 3rd symbol generator?.
Option A. Comparison
with No.1 symbol generator.
Option B. Parity
function.
Option C. Standby.
Correct Answer is. Standby.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 36. FMS operational program is updated every.
Option A. 90
days.
Option B. 28
days.
Option C. 7
days.
Correct Answer is. 28
days.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 37. An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins
recording.
Option A. when
power is applied to the aircraft.
Option B. on
take-off.
Option C. on
engine start-up.
Correct Answer is. on
engine start-up.
Explanation. See ANO
Art 53 para.1.
Question Number. 38. The FMS databases consist of.
Option A. one
navigation and one performance database.
Option B. one performance
and two navigation databases.
Option C. two
performance and one navigation database.
Correct Answer is. one
performance and two navigation databases.
Explanation. Normally
we consider the FMS as having 2 databases (1 navigational and 1 performance).
(Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 385). However, the Navigational database
is split in two. 1 is for Jeppesen data,
uploaded on the ground, the other is for pilot input data (additional waypoints
etc.). See http://www.b737.org.uk/fmc.htm for more.
Question Number. 39. The FMS can update the IRS position
outputs by using information from either.
Option A. VOR
and DME only.
Option B. GPS,
DME, LOC and VOR.
Option C. DME
and GPS only.
Correct Answer is. GPS,
DME, LOC and VOR.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 40. The accepted error from INS/IRS is.
Option A. 3
miles / hour + 3 miles.
Option B. 2
miles per hour + 3 miles.
Option C. 1
mile/hour+3 miles.
Correct Answer is. 3
miles / hour + 3 miles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 41. Before an IRS can complete the alignment
sequence.
Option A. the
current present position must be entered.
Option B. either
the last or current position must be entered.
Option C. the
shutdown present position must be entered.
Correct Answer is. the
current present position must be entered.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. What warnings can an FMS provide?.
Option A. Discrete
warnings.
Option B. Spurious
faults.
Option C. Ground
faults only.
Correct Answer is. Discrete
warnings.
Explanation. This
means it can warn of inoperative equipment, but not when equipment is providing
incorrect data.
Question Number. 43. Electronic Centralised Aircraft
Monitoring System.
Option A. performs
in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE
interrogation.
Option B. performs
in-flight BITE interrogation only.
Option C. give
red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Correct Answer is. give
red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 44. The control of the speed or rate that the
flight director command bars move can be controlled by.
Option A. position
feedback.
Option B. rate
or velocity feedback.
Option C. amplifier
gain.
Correct Answer is. rate
or velocity feedback.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 45. The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring
System uses the maintenance mode of operation.
Option A. on the
ground only.
Option B. in the
air only.
Option C. either
in the air or on the ground.
Correct Answer is. on
the ground only.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition Page 359.
Question Number. 46. The third EFIS Symbol Generator is
operated.
Option A. in an
emergency.
Option B. with
EICAS.
Option C. as a
standby to the No1 and No2 system.
Correct Answer is. as
a standby to the No1 and No2 system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 47. EFIS displays of the right hand and left
hand displays are compared by comparators in the.
Option A. FMS.
Option B. EICAS.
Option C. Symbol
Generators.
Correct Answer is. Symbol
Generators.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 48. What is the approximate earth rate?.
Option A. 10°/hour.
Option B. 5°/hour.
Option C. 15°/hour.
Correct Answer is. 15°/hour.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 102.
Question Number. 49. An IRS has.
Option A. two or
three accelerometers depending on the system.
Option B. three
accelerometers.
Option C. two
accelerometers.
Correct Answer is. three
accelerometers.
Explanation. Jeppesen
Avionics Fundamentals Page 137.
Question Number. 50. IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide.
Option A. rate
of movement about an axis.
Option B. displacement
about an axis.
Option C. both
rate and displacement about an axis.
Correct Answer is. rate
of movement about an axis.
Explanation. Jeppesen
Avionics Fundamentals Page 137.
Question Number. 51. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC?.
Option A. TAS,
MACH, Altitude and TAT.
Option B. TAS,
MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.
Option C. TAS,
MACH and Altitude.
Correct Answer is. TAS,
MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.
Explanation. Both
Static and Total Air Temperatures are outputs of a digital ADC.
Question Number. 52. Fly By Wire systems in the fully active
mode, the actuators will.
Option A. both
be active.
Option B. both
be in damping mode, awaiting control inputs.
Option C. one in
active mode, one in damping mode.
Correct Answer is. both
be active.
Explanation. Ref to
B777 and A330 manuals, the term active mode will always be associated with
fully operational of redundancy of all actuators or servo controls. This means,
each primary flight control surfaces' actuators (either 2 or 3 actuators
configuration designed to provide fully-powered controls that suit the size and
purpose of surfaces) are actually active on all phases. If any failure occurs,
the failed actuator will then revert to 'damping' mode, becoming slave to
remaining active actuators.
Question Number. 53. On a Fly By Wire system, what controls
the stab trim?.
Option A. ELAC
and SEC.
Option B. SEC.
Option C. ELAC.
Correct Answer is. ELAC
and SEC.
Explanation. ELAC =
Elevator Aileron Computer, SEC = Spoilers Elevator Computer and FAC = Flight
Augmentation Computers (rudder).
Question Number. 54. The minimum requirement for a cockpit
voice recorder to begin operating is.
Option A. on
engine start-up.
Option B. on
commencing the takeoff roll.
Option C. once
established in the en-route climb.
Correct Answer is. on
engine start-up.
Explanation. JAR Ops
states that the CVR must begin when the aircraft is capable of moving under its
own power.
Question Number. 55. Aircraft Communications Addressing and
Reporting Systems is used to.
Option A. download
aircraft status reports.
Option B. make
telephone calls.
Option C. allow
the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base.
Correct Answer is. download
aircraft status reports.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. B-RNAV system must be capable of.
Option A. holding
six waypoints.
Option B. displaying
distance and bearing to waypoint.
Option C. reversing
the waypoints for.
Correct Answer is. displaying
distance and bearing to waypoint.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. The basic principle of radar is based
upon.
Option A. the
amount of power in the signal returned.
Option B. the
time delay between outward and returning pulse.
Option C. ultrasonic
wave propagation.
Correct Answer is. the
time delay between outward and returning pulse.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 58. What systems does the ADC feed?.
Option A. Altimeter
/ FMS / secondary radar.
Option B. Cabin
pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter.
Option C. Standby
altimeter/machmeter.
Correct Answer is. Cabin
pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. Which systems does a modern ADC give
information to?.
Option A. EFIS.
Option B. EICAS.
Option C. Flight
control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems.
Correct Answer is. Flight
control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 60. Where do the outputs from a DADC go?.
Option A. EHSI.
Option B. EADI.
Option C. IRMP:
Inertial Reference Mode Panel.
Correct Answer is. EADI.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett page 179.
Question Number. 61. How many satellite signals are required
to achieve precise 3D positioning?.
Option A. 4.
Option B. 5.
Option C. 6.
Correct Answer is. 4.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 62. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane
CVR is.
Option A. from
power on.
Option B. from
engine start.
Option C. from
beginning of take off roll.
Correct Answer is. from
engine start.
Explanation. JAR OPS
Para 1.700 (c) OR answer c by CAP 393 Section I Para 53.
Question Number. 63. An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS)
computes distance from acceleration by.
Option A. two
successive integrations.
Option B. a
simple integration.
Option C. a
differentiation followed by an integration.
Correct Answer is. two
successive integrations.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 64. Before the aircraft is moved from the
loading pier the pilot must.
Option A. insert
the longitude and latitude of the first waypoint into the INS.
Option B. set
the altitude to be fed into the INS.
Option C. insert
the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS.
Correct Answer is. insert
the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 65. An IRS has.
Option A. accelerometers
and gyros fixed to a the airframe.
Option B. accelerometers
fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform.
Option C. accelerometers
on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe.
Correct Answer is. accelerometers
and gyros fixed to a the airframe.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 66. An IRS system requires data for wind
computation from.
Option A. Doppler
System.
Option B. satellites.
Option C. central
Air Data Computer.
Correct Answer is. central
Air Data Computer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 67. The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta
navigation function, the purpose of this is to.
Option A. update
the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and longitude.
Option B. to
update the VOR and DME systems with an accurate position fix.
Option C. to
update the EMS with the new lateral flight profile for the flight plan.
Correct Answer is. update
the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and longitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 68. The FMS is updated.
Option A. automatically
by update data from the ACARS.
Option B. by an
aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy disc.
Option C. by the
aircrew by reference to the Tech Log.
Correct Answer is. by
an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy
disc.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 69. Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is
achieved by.
Option A. stabilizer
only.
Option B. elevators
only.
Option C. stabilizer
and elevator.
Correct Answer is. stabilizer
and elevator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. In a fly by wire system, if the pilot
control input is derived from a side stick controller:.
Option A. there
is no control surface feedback to the side stick.
Option B. control
surface feedback is fed to the side stick.
Option C. there
will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a computer
failure.
Correct Answer is. there
is no control surface feedback to the side stick.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 71. A basic IRS platform has.
Option A. 3
accelerometers and 2 laser gyros.
Option B. 2
Accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
Option C. 3
accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
Correct Answer is. 3
accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
Explanation. Jeppesen
Avionics Fundamentals Page 137.
Question Number. 72. What must be entered into the IRS before
the aircraft can be moved?.
Option A. Flight
plan.
Option B. Present
position.
Option C. Cruise
height.
Correct Answer is. Present
position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 73. The FMS Operational Database is.
Option A. updated
once a month.
Option B. is fed
with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index before take
off.
Option C. needs
no update information.
Correct Answer is. is
fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index before
take off.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 74. Control surface feedback is fed back to.
Option A. the
Flight Control Computer only.
Option B. the
side stick controller only.
Option C. the
Flight Control Computer and side stick controller.
Correct Answer is. the
Flight Control Computer only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 75. The accelerometer output in an INS/IRS
is.
Option A. integrated
once to give distance.
Option B. integrated
twice to give velocity.
Option C. integrated
twice to give distance.
Correct Answer is. integrated
twice to give distance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 76. An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides.
Option A. standby
power only whilst in flight.
Option B. standby
power when airborne and on the ground.
Option C. standby
power only on the ground.
Correct Answer is. standby
power when airborne and on the ground.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 247 & 248.
Question Number. 77. If a fly by wire actuator loses hydraulic
power the control surface will.
Option A. automatically
move back to the neutral position.
Option B. remain
rigid in the failure position.
Option C. remain
in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure.
Correct Answer is. remain
in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 78. IRS alignment.
Option A. takes
up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time during
alignment.
Option B. takes
up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment.
Option C. takes
up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for
the alignment.
Correct Answer is. takes
up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time during
alignment.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. A fault light appears on the IRS Mode
Selector Unit during the alignment sequence. The correct action is.
Option A. immediately
switch off and select the standby system.
Option B. select
HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the action code in
the right alpha/numeric display.
Option C. refer
to the warning display on the EICAS/ECAM system.
Correct Answer is. select
HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the action code in
the right alpha/numeric display.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 80. A FMS has a total of how many Databases.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 1.
Correct Answer is. 2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 81. Fly by wire High Speed protection is.
Option A. to
prevent tuck under.
Option B. to
increase the pitch angle as speed increases.
Option C. to
prevent high speed stall.
Correct Answer is. to
prevent tuck under.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 82. An IRS Laser gyro provides.
Option A. detection
of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis.
Option B. detection
of the earths gravitational force to establish true north.
Option C. detection
of the earths rotation to establish true north.
Correct Answer is. detection
of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis.
Explanation. Jeppesen
Avionics Fundamentals Page 137.
Question Number. 83. The left and right cockpit displays.
Option A. are
supplied from separate Symbol Generators at all times.
Option B. are
supplied from the same Symbol Generator.
Option C. will
only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other symbol
generators have failed.
Correct Answer is. will
only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other symbol
generators have failed.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 84. A single failure of a fly by wire control
surface computer will.
Option A. cause
the system to revert to an alternate law of operation.
Option B. not
have any operational effect on the system.
Option C. cause
the system to revert to a direct law of operation.
Correct Answer is. not
have any operational effect on the system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 85. What are the outputs from digital clocks
used for?.
Option A. Flight
data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice recorder.
Option B. VOR,
ILS and DME.
Option C. Weather
radar, TCAS and ACARS.
Correct Answer is. Flight
data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice recorder.
Explanation. Only
these require real time reference.
Question Number. 86. A full operation system BITE check will
carry out a internal system test that ensures the system meets design
requirements and is operational.
Option A. but
will not move the controls.
Option B. as
well as checking full system and will move the controls to their stops.
Option C. as
well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their stops.
Correct Answer is. as
well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their stops.
Explanation. Digital
Avionic Systems - Cary Spitzer. Page 109, Arinc report 604 guidance for design
and use of built in test equipment states... 'BITE should exercise the hardware
sufficiently to determine if it meets the performance requirements but should
not drive it against mechanical stops.'.
Question Number. 87. If on a flight deck EFIS system all the
displays were missing one bit of information. This is most likely to be.
Option A. the
input sensor bus and display controller.
Option B. the
symbol generator and display.
Option C. the
display controller and symbol generator.
Correct Answer is. the
display controller and symbol generator.
Explanation. By
elimination, a fault in the display would be more general, and a fault with the
sensor would still display, but an
erroneous value.
Question Number. 88. A centralised monitoring computer system
is used.
Option A. to
test system during flight and for BITE test of
systems on the ground using a carry on control unit.
Option B. to
test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control
unit.
Option C. testing
systems on the ground only.
Correct Answer is. to
test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control
unit.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 270.
Question Number. 89. In an EFIS display, the lines, scales,
indicator and synoptic are generated by.
Option A. raster
scan.
Option B. synoptic
scan.
Option C. stroke
pulse.
Correct Answer is. stroke
pulse.
Explanation. 757 MM
34-22-00 page 40 (p) and 737 MM 34-22-00 page 47, 4(b).
Question Number. 90. The method of producing (white) lines for
aircraft symbols, V/S scale etc. on an EADI is by.
Option A. raster
scan.
Option B. trapezoidal
input.
Option C. stroke
pulse.
Correct Answer is. stroke
pulse.
Explanation. MM
737-300/400/500, 34-22-00 page 47 4b or MM 757 34-22-00 page 40 (p). 'The
special symbols, characters, letters, vectors and arcs are displayed using the
stroke method. The EADI sky/ground ball
or EHSI weather radar are displayed using the raster method.
Question Number. 91. In modern aircraft, the output from the
clock is used.
Option A. to
synchronise the signals on the control bus.
Option B. to
provide a clock pulse for CRT.
Option C. to
give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems.
Correct Answer is. to
give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 92. As a minimum requirement, when must a
cockpit voice recorder start recording?.
Option A. From
the start of the aircraft take off run.
Option B. After
take off when airborne.
Option C. On
first engine start.
Correct Answer is. On
first engine start.
Explanation. CAP 393
Section I Para 53, OR answer a by JAR OPS Para 1.700 ©.
Question Number. 93. The operational database of the FMS may
have to be modified in flight.
Option A. It
cannot be modified in flight.
Option B. by the
pilot.
Option C. automatically
by the DADC.
Correct Answer is. It
cannot be modified in flight.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 94. CADC outputs are.
Option A. altitude,
vertical speed, IAS, mach no.
Option B. altitude,
vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT.
Option C. altitude
,vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT.
Correct Answer is. altitude,
vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 162.
Question Number. 95. If one EICAS CRT fails.
Option A. the
FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data.
Option B. the
remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data.
Option C. the
standby CRT will automatically take over.
Correct Answer is. the
remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 96. Variations in light on EFIS displays are
compensated for by.
Option A. An
external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for
all displays in a parallel-parallel format.
Option B. manual
adjustment by flight crew on EFIS controller.
Option C. integrated
light dependant resistors in the display compensating for each display
individual.
Correct Answer is. An
external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for
all displays in a parallel-parallel format.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett pages 296 & 299.
Question Number. 97. A method used in modern aircraft for
reporting in flight faults to an engineering and monitoring ground station is.
Option A. TCAS
II.
Option B. ACARS.
Option C. TAWS.
Correct Answer is. ACARS.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 299.
Question Number. 98. The self test function on an EFIS system
can be tested.
Option A. on the
ground only.
Option B. in the
air only.
Option C. in the
air and on the ground.
Correct Answer is. in
the air and on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 99. Each of the symbol generator outputs in
an EFIS system can be.
Option A. displayed
on each individual display.
Option B. only
no. 2 can be displayed on the no.1.
Option C. can
not be interchanged.
Correct Answer is. displayed
on each individual display.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 100. BITE tests are inhibited for ground use
during.
Option A. forward
motion.
Option B. gear
retraction.
Option C. take-off.
Correct Answer is. take-off.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 101. Modern aircraft with electronic displays
would display information on airframe and engine on which system?.
Option A. Electronic
centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM).
Option B. Flight
management system.
Option C. EADI.
Correct Answer is. Electronic
centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM).
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 102. The Flight data recorder starts recording.
Option A. after
take off.
Option B. on
aircraft roll out from stand.
Option C. after
the first engine has started.
Correct Answer is. after
the first engine has started.
Explanation. JAR OPS
Subpart K 1.715 e.
Question Number. 103. Data to flight data recorder can be taken
from a communal data bus if.
Option A. the
power is within flight data recorder limits.
Option B. it
goes directly to it.
Option C. source
isolation has been considered.
Correct Answer is. source
isolation has been considered.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 104. A central fault display system should be
available through.
Option A. a bite
test.
Option B. a
central bite test box with clear LED indications.
Option C. a
easily accessible multifunction control display unit.
Correct Answer is. a
easily accessible multifunction control display unit.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 105. A flight data recorder should be capable of
recording.
Option A. the
last 25 hours.
Option B. the
last 25 hours of aircraft flight.
Option C. the
last 25 hours with engines running.
Correct Answer is. the
last 25 hours with engines running.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 106. BITE for ground use only is switched off.
Option A. on
take-off.
Option B. when
brakes are released.
Option C. when
undercarriage up.
Correct Answer is. on
take-off.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 107. During normal functioning of an ECAM system
the engine data shown on the Engine/Warning display comes from the.
Option A. EFIS
channel of DMC3.
Option B. ECAM
channel of DMC1.
Option C. ECAM
channel of DMC3.
Correct Answer is. ECAM
channel of DMC3.
Explanation. A330-200
31-50-00 pg4.
Question Number. 108. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies.
Option A. rhumb
line.
Option B. course
directed by ground station.
Option C. great
circle route.
Correct Answer is. great
circle route.
Explanation. Jeppesen
Avionics Fundamentals Page 132.
Question Number. 109. What warnings can an FMS provide?.
Option A. Ground
faults only.
Option B. Discrete
warnings.
Option C. Spurious
faults.
Correct Answer is. Discrete
warnings.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 110. Aircraft heading (HDG) is.
Option A. the
angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Option B. the
angle between True North and the actual track.
Option C. the
angle between True North and the desired track.
Correct Answer is. the
angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 254.
Question Number. 111. For an IRS System to pass the Alignment
System Performance Test the the latitude
entered must be within given limits of the.
Option A. latitude
computed by IRU.
Option B. entered
present latitude and longitude must agree with
the latitude and longitude at last power down.
Option C. the No
1 and No 2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered.
Correct Answer is. the
latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett pages 279-280.
Question Number. 112. Control Display Unit (CDU ) selection of
TKE (Track Angle Error), displays.
Option A. difference
in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track.
Option B. distance
perpendicular from the selected track.
Option C. difference
in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track.
Correct Answer is. difference
in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 256.
Question Number. 113. In the EICAS system, when is the
maintenance mode available?.
Option A. Lower
screen only - only available on the ground.
Option B. In
flight.
Option C. On the
upper and lower screens - only available on the ground.
Correct Answer is. Lower
screen only - only available on the ground.
Explanation. B747
Maintenance Manual. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page
380.
Question Number. 114. On a modern aircraft when are BITE checks
carried out?.
Option A. Continuously
when system is in use.
Option B. After
engine shut down.
Option C. Only
when BITE selected.
Correct Answer is. Continuously
when system is in use.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics, 5th edition, Eismin, Pages 152 and 268.
Question Number. 115. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable
platform is to.
Option A. provide
attitude reference.
Option B. prevent
unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Option C. stop
the gyros from toppling.
Correct Answer is. prevent
unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 260.
Question Number. 116. An IN system requires data from the.
Option A. Doppler
system.
Option B. airdata
computer.
Option C. satellites.
Correct Answer is. airdata
computer.
Explanation. Jeppesen
Avionics Fundamentals Page 138.
Question Number. 117. TK (cross track) is the.
Option A. actual
track across the earths surface.
Option B. angle
in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired track.
Option C. perpendicular
distance from the desired track.
Correct Answer is. perpendicular
distance from the desired track.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 256.
Question Number. 118. The output of an INS can be fed to the.
Option A. attitude
indicators.
Option B. altimeters.
Option C. vertical
speed indicators.
Correct Answer is. attitude
indicators.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 247 fig 10.1. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137 & 138.
Question Number. 119. The three accelerometers on a strapdown
system are mounted.
Option A. 90° to
each other.
Option B. parallel
to each other.
Option C. 120°
apart.
Correct Answer is. 90°
to each other.
Explanation. Jeppesen
Avionics Fundamentals Page 135.
Question Number. 120. Gyro-compassing is the term used for.
Option A. self-alignment
in the vertical.
Option B. use of
the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform.
Option C. self-alignment
in azimuth.
Correct Answer is. self-alignment
in azimuth.
Explanation. Aircraft
Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 280.
Question Number. 121. Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring
System operates to.
Option A. give
red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Option B. perform
in-flight BITE only.
Option C. perform
in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE.
Correct Answer is. give
red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 122. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System
uses the maintenance mode of operation.
Option A. on the
ground only.
Option B. in the
air only.
Option C. either
ground or air.
Correct Answer is. on
the ground only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 123. If part of a display is lost on a CRT, this
could be due to.
Option A. an
inoperative symbol generator or control panel.
Option B. an
inoperative symbol generator or input sensor.
Option C. loss
of power to the CRT.
Correct Answer is. an
inoperative symbol generator or input sensor.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 124. A cyclic test (watch dog) should be
performed for ECAM.
Option A. via
MCDU.
Option B. during
power up.
Option C. during
flight.
Correct Answer is. during
flight.
Explanation. Aircraft
Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition. Pg 154.
Question Number. 125. How does the symbol generator detect a
program error?.
Option A. By
looking at the even parity without error.
Option B. By
looking at the odd parity without error.
Option C. By
check sum bites for error detect.
Correct Answer is. By
looking at the odd parity without error.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 126. Relationship of CMCs to BITE systems is
best described as.
Option A. CMCs
replaced but is not related to the older BITE system.
Option B. CMCs
monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.
Option C. CMCs
modifies and upgrades BITE systems.
Correct Answer is. CMCs
monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 127. An IRU interface test is carried out.
Option A. in the
air.
Option B. only
on the ground.
Option C. on the
ground or in the air.
Correct Answer is. only
on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 128. FMS system gives warning indications for.
Option A. take
off and landings only.
Option B. any
flight phase.
Option C. cruise.
Correct Answer is. cruise.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 129. FMS CDU warnings are.
Option A. fail
and MSG.
Option B. OFST
and Fail.
Option C. MSG,
fail and OFST.
Correct Answer is. MSG,
fail and OFST.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 130. CMC (central maintenance computer) works
to.
Option A. perform
in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE.
Option B. give
red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with system status.
Option C. perform
in-flight bite only.
Correct Answer is. perform
in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 131. BITE test carried out on input sensors and
actuators performs.
Option A. validation
of the information of the LRU.
Option B. a
performance test of the system.
Option C. a test
of the LRU.
Correct Answer is. a
performance test of the system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 132. A BITE check for automatic performance and
fault monitoring is carried out when?.
Option A. Power-up
self test.
Option B. For
in-flight monitoring.
Option C. To
check the performance of the LRU.
Correct Answer is. Power-up
self test.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 133. In which of the following does TCAS II
advise the pilot to make a maneouvre?.
Option A. RA.
Option B. TA.
Option C. either
RA or TA.
Correct Answer is. RA.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 134. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a
TCAS display?.
Option A. White
circles, red diamonds and amber squares.
Option B. White
diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Option C. White
squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
Correct Answer is. White
diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 135. If a display shows a red cross only, it is
due to.
Option A. Symbol
Generator failure.
Option B. CRT failure.
Option C. Altimeter
failure.
Correct Answer is. Symbol
Generator failure.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 136. ACARS is an acronym for.
Option A. ARINC
Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Option B. Airborne
Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Option C. Aircraft
Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft
Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.acarsonline.co.uk/alabout.htm
Question Number. 137. When does the flight data recorder start
recording ?.
Option A. Undercarriage
up.
Option B. Parking
brake released.
Option C. When
the first engine starts.
Correct Answer is. When
the first engine starts.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 138. Brake temperature displayed on a flight
deck CRT has.
Option A. a
master warning light.
Option B. same
colour throughout.
Option C. different
colour for different temperatures.
Correct Answer is. different
colour for different temperatures.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 139. When performing test on Electronic Displays
using the Built In Test system.
Option A. CRT
continues to display current data while the SGs and Display are internally
tested.
Option B. SG
injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST appears on the
screen.
Option C. displays
cannot be tested it is only SG which are tested by BITE.
Correct Answer is. SG
injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST appears on the
screen.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 140. Heading reference required to establish
initial heading during alignment sequence comes from.
Option A. FMS
which gathers data from other Radio devices.
Option B. Magnetic
compass installed on the airplane.
Option C. Earths
Rotation.
Correct Answer is. Earths
Rotation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 141. What is primary mode of navigation on a
modern aeroplane?.
Option A. Both
GPS and IRS.
Option B. Only
IRS.
Option C. Inch
precise GPS.
Correct Answer is. Only
IRS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 142. In a flight director, how are small
deviations corrected?.
Option A. Pilot
input.
Option B. Instrument
is calibrated at fitment to remove any possible error.
Option C. Instrument
feedback.
Correct Answer is. Pilot
input.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 143. For a 3 dimensional fix in a Global
Positioning System.
Option A. Minimum
of 3 satellites must be in view.
Option B. Minimum
of 2 satellites must be in view and altitude used to simulate a 3rd satellite.
Option C. Minimum
of 4 satellites must be in view.
Correct Answer is. Minimum
of 4 satellites must be in view.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 144. In an aircraft equipped with TCAS II and
EFIS.
Option A. RA
pitch command is shown on the EHSI and TA/RA traffic on the EADI.
Option B. RA
pitch command is shown on the VSI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
Option C. RA
pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
Correct Answer is. RA
pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 145. The BITE indicator on a DFDR shows Yellow
colour. This indicates.
Option A. power
is ON but DFDR is not recording data.
Option B. power
is ON and DFDR is recording data.
Option C. power
is OFF or DFDR is at Fault.
Correct Answer is. power
is OFF or DFDR is at Fault.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 146. In a typical 'Glass Cockpit' EICAS provides
the following.
Option A. engine
parameters and system warnings only.
Option B. engine
parameters and engine warnings only.
Option C. engine
warnings only.
Correct Answer is. engine
parameters and system warnings only.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 147. What is the minimum requirement for CVR to
operate?.
Option A. BEFORE
take-off.
Option B. BEFORE
engine start.
Option C. at any
time the manufacturer decides.
Correct Answer is. BEFORE
take-off.
Explanation. Minimum
requirement is AT first engine start (according to JAR OPS) which is BEFORE
take-of.
Question Number. 148. ECAM system was adopted for.
Option A. Airbus
A310.
Option B. both
Boeing and Airbus aircraft.
Option C. Boeing
757 and 767 aircraft.
Correct Answer is. Airbus
A310.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 149. A modern electromagnetic Flight Data
Recorder, for recording data, could use:.
Option A. a
floppy disk.
Option B. a
plastic tape coated in ferrite.
Option C. a
copper oxide string.
Correct Answer is. a
plastic tape coated in ferrite.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 150. What is the minimum requirement for a CVR
to start recording?.
Option A. When
parking brake is released.
Option B. On
commencement of flight.
Option C. When
aircraft is capable of moving under its own power.
Correct Answer is. When
aircraft is capable of moving under its own power.
Explanation. JAR Ops
1.700 para c.
Question Number. 151. As a minimum requirement when must a
cockpit voice recorder start recording?.
Option A. Once
airborne after take off.
Option B. Before
engine start.
Option C. Once
aircraft is ready to move under its own power.
Correct Answer is. Once
aircraft is ready to move under its own power.
Explanation. JAR Ops
1.700 para c.
05.16.
Question Number. .
1 101012 + 110012 =.
Option A. 462.
Option B. 468.
Option C. 4610.
Correct Answer is. 4610.
Explanation. 101012
+ 110012 = 1011102 = 4610.
the daigrams are missing
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