Module 09,
Human Factors.
09.1. General.
Question Number. 1. Accidents and engineering faults are.
Option A. insignificant
and decreasing.
Option B. significant
and increasing.
Option C. insignificant
and increasing.
Correct Answer is. significant
and increasing.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para.2.5 CAP 716 App.G pg.2 Para 1.3.1.
Question Number. 2. Murphy's law is perpetuated mainly by.
Option A. violations.
Option B. poor
aircraft design.
Option C. complacency.
Correct Answer is. complacency.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para.3.1.
Question Number. 3. Murphy's law can be regarded as the
notion.
Option A. If
something can go wrong it will'.
Option B. It can
never happen to me'.
Option C. If
something goes wrong I am certain to get the blame'.
Correct Answer is. If
something can go wrong it will'.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para.3.1.
Question Number. 4. A company's safety policy should be
defined in.
Option A. in CAP
716.
Option B. the
Maintenance Schedule.
Option C. the
Maintenance Organization Exposition.
Correct Answer is. the
Maintenance Organization Exposition.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.1.
Question Number. 5. Which of the following is least
associated with the study of human factors?.
Option A. Ergonomics.
Option B. Health
and Safety.
Option C. Human
error.
Correct Answer is. Health
and Safety.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.9 (1st Para.).
Question Number. 6. The incident where a 737 lost oil from
both engines is a direct result of.
Option A. poor
design.
Option B. human
error.
Option C. engine
vibration.
Correct Answer is. human
error.
Explanation. CAP 716
Ch.4 Para.5.4.2 and App.F Para.1.7.
Question Number. 7. If a 737 had both engines serviced and
lost oil from both engines in flight. This.
Option A. can be
expected to happen statistically due to the number of aircraft in service.
Option B. would
be a direct result of human error.
Option C. can be
considered an acceptable probability.
Correct Answer is. would
be a direct result of human error.
Explanation. CAP 716
App.F Para 1.7.
Question Number. 8. What do you do when someone is
hypothermic?.
Option A. Warm
them up.
Option B. Feed
them sweet things because of their diabetes.
Option C. Give
them a drink because of dehydration.
Correct Answer is. Warm
them up.
Explanation. Hypothermia
is dangerously low body temperature.
Question Number. 9. The percentage of accidents
attributable to aircraft maintenance and inspection causes is.
Option A. now
less significant due to the introduction of more sophisticated aircraft.
Option B. significant
and rising.
Option C. now
less significant due to more advanced maintenance practices.
Correct Answer is. significant
and rising.
Explanation. CAP 718
Ch.1 Para.1 and 4. CAP 716 App.G Para.1.3.1.
Question Number. 10. What happened to contribute towards the
incident in 1995 where a Boeing 737 lost oil pressure and had to divert?.
Option A. Both
warning indications were faulty, due to crossed connections.
Option B. The HP
rotor drive covers of both engines had not been refitted after a boroscope
inspection.
Option C. The
boroscope inspection had been inadequate.
Correct Answer is. The
HP rotor drive covers of both engines had not been refitted after a boroscope
inspection.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.6 App.F Para.1.7 or CAP715. Ch.1 Para. 2.6.1.
Question Number. 11. What is the most common cause of
in-flight engine shutdown?.
Option A. Incomplete
installation.
Option B. Improper
fault isolation, inspection or test.
Option C. Foreign
object damage.
Correct Answer is. Incomplete
installation.
Explanation. In a
Boeing study of 276 inflight shutdowns, 94% of were due to incomplete, improper
instalation, damage on instalation, equipment not installed - FOD was a
contributing factor.
Question Number. 12. Most engineering related incidents are
due to.
Option A. installing
dirty connectors.
Option B. installing
components incorrectly.
Option C. installing
worn or old components.
Correct Answer is. installing
components incorrectly.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para.2.
Question Number. 13. What causes the most aircraft accidents?.
Option A. Technical
faults.
Option B. Communication.
Option C. Misunderstanding
between ATC and pilot on approach.
Correct Answer is. Communication.
Explanation. Deduced
from CAP 715 Ch.1 Para.2.2 since 'inadequate cross check' is a communication
problem.
09.2. Human Performance and Limitations.
Question Number. 1. 70 - 80% of the total focusing ability
of the eye is carried out by the.
Option A. iris.
Option B. cornea.
Option C. lens.
Correct Answer is. cornea.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.2.
Question Number. 2. At what distance should a person
without hearing difficulties be able to hear an average conversational voice in
a quiet room.
Option A. 2
metres (6 feet).
Option B. 3
metres (9 feet.
Option C. 1
metre (3 feet).
Correct Answer is. 2
metres (6 feet).
Explanation. AWN 47
Para.3.5 and CAP 715 Ch.2 Para.3.10.1.
Question Number. 3. A perforated ear drum could occur if.
Option A. you
were subjected to intermittent noise above 25 kHz.
Option B. you
blew your nose excessively.
Option C. you
were subjected to continuous noise below 8 kHz.
Correct Answer is. you
were subjected to continuous noise below 8 kHz.
Explanation. Normal
audible range is 20 - 20,000 Hz (CAP 715 Ch.5 Para.1.1). 8 kHz is high
frequency. Anything below that can cause damage if sound level is too high.
Question Number. 4. How long is the short term memory good
for remembering 7 items?.
Option A. 30 to
60 seconds.
Option B. Up to
30 seconds.
Option C. Above
60 seconds.
Correct Answer is. Up
to 30 seconds.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.5.5.
Question Number. 5. What is white finger?.
Option A. A
disorder of the finger which may occur through continuous use of pneumatic tools
because of reduced blood flow.
Option B. A
reaction when the white blood cells die and contaminate the fingers.
Option C. A skin
disorder caused by extensive contact with oils and solvents.
Correct Answer is. A
disorder of the finger which may occur through continuous use of pneumatic
tools because of reduced blood flow.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.5 Para.5.2.
Question Number. 6. When someone is working in an enclosed
space (such a fuel tank), another person should be outside the space in
constant communication to.
Option A. provide
instructions to the tradesman.
Option B. ensure
compliance with the maintenance manual.
Option C. for
safety reasons.
Correct Answer is. for
safety reasons.
Explanation. CAP715
Ch.5 Para. 6 This is the normal procedure for the safety of the tradesman.
Question Number. 7. The scientific study of measurements of
the human body is known as.
Option A. ergonomics.
Option B. physiology.
Option C. anthropometrics.
Correct Answer is. anthropometrics.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para.1.4.4 From the Greek 'Anthropos' meaning 'a man' and 'Metron' meaning
'measurement'.
Question Number. 8. How long can the aural reflex protect
the ear from loud noise?.
Option A. 5
seconds.
Option B. 15
seconds.
Option C. 15
minutes.
Correct Answer is. 15
minutes.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.3.3.
Question Number. 9. What part of the eye controls the
amount of light that is allowed to enter the eye?.
Option A. The
pupil.
Option B. The
iris.
Option C. The
cornea.
Correct Answer is. The
iris.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.3.
Question Number. 10. Learning of a routine by repeated
practice is known as.
Option A. cognitive
learning.
Option B. motor
programming.
Option C. episodic
memory.
Correct Answer is. motor
programming.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.6.
Question Number. 11. The ear is used to detect.
Option A. speed.
Option B. neither
acceleration or speed.
Option C. acceleration.
Correct Answer is. acceleration.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.3.1.1.
Question Number. 12. Light enters the eye through the.
Option A. cornea.
Option B. visual
cortex.
Option C. retina.
Correct Answer is. cornea.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.1.
Question Number. 13. To focus on a near object, the lens of
the eye must.
Option A. be
widened.
Option B. be
flattened.
Option C. be
thickened.
Correct Answer is. be
thickened.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.4.
Question Number. 14. Which type of memory is most susceptible
to interference from external influences?.
Option A. Long
term.
Option B. Ultra
short term.
Option C. Short
term.
Correct Answer is. Short
term.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.8.8.
Question Number. 15. Peripheral vision is detected by the.
Option A. cones.
Option B. fovea.
Option C. rods.
Correct Answer is. rods.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.5.1.
Question Number. 16. Extreme discomfort experienced by a
maintenance engineer due to working in a confined space is known as.
Option A. claustrophobia.
Option B. acrophobia.
Option C. agoraphobia.
Correct Answer is. claustrophobia.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.5.1.1.
Question Number. 17. What part of the eye is colour
sensitive?.
Option A. The
rods.
Option B. The
cones.
Option C. The
iris.
Correct Answer is. The
cones.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.5.1.
Question Number. 18. What type of lens is used to overcome
short sightedness?.
Option A. Concave.
Option B. Bi-focal.
Option C. Convex.
Correct Answer is. Concave.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.7.2.
Question Number. 19. The type of memory which is most easily
influenced by a person's expectations of what should have happened is the.
Option A. long
term memory.
Option B. semantic
memory.
Option C. episodic
memory.
Correct Answer is. episodic
memory.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.5.8.
Question Number. 20. The inability for the eyes to accommodate
sufficiently is known as.
Option A. Presbyopia.
Option B. Hypermetropia.
Option C. myopia.
Correct Answer is. Presbyopia.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.7.4.
Question Number. 21. An aircraft maintenance engineer who
wears glasses or contact lenses should.
Option A. not
require their duties to be restricted providing they wear their glasses/contact
lenses at all times they carry out their duties.
Option B. have
their duties restricted accordingly.
Option C. not
require their duties to be restricted providing they have frequent checks to
ensure the adequacy of their glasses/contact lenses.
Correct Answer is. not
require their duties to be restricted providing they have frequent checks to
ensure the adequacy of their glasses/contact lenses.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.12.2 and Ch.6 Para.3.3.
Question Number. 22. Ultra short term memory has a duration of
about.
Option A. 10 to
20 seconds.
Option B. 80 -
100 milliseconds.
Option C. 2
seconds.
Correct Answer is. 2
seconds.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.5.4.
Question Number. 23. What type of lens is used to correct long
sightedness?.
Option A. Concave.
Option B. Convex.
Option C. Bi-focal.
Correct Answer is. Convex.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.7.1.
Question Number. 24. Visual Acuity is the ability.
Option A. to
differentiate between different colours.
Option B. to
detect objects in the peripheral vision.
Option C. of the
eye to discriminate sharp detail at varying distances.
Correct Answer is. of
the eye to discriminate sharp detail at varying distances.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.4.
Question Number. 25. The 'working memory' is.
Option A. long
term memory.
Option B. short
term memory.
Option C. ultra
short term memory.
Correct Answer is. short
term memory.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.5.3.
Question Number. 26. Colour defective vision affects.
Option A. almost
1 in 10 of men.
Option B. more
women than men.
Option C. almost
1 in 10 of women.
Correct Answer is. almost
1 in 10 of men.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.11.2.
Question Number. 27. At lower light levels, the visual sensing
is performed mainly by the.
Option A. fovea.
Option B. cones.
Option C. rods.
Correct Answer is. rods.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.5.1.
Question Number. 28. If an image formed on the retina of the
eye is inverted relative to the viewers normal perception of the image, the
viewer will.
Option A. become
disoriented and dizzy.
Option B. consciously
mentally revert the image so as to make sense of his/her surroundings.
Option C. behave
and feel normal.
Correct Answer is. behave
and feel normal.
Explanation. The
lens of the eye inverts the image, which is subconsciously reverted by the
brain.
Question Number. 29. People with colour defective vision
usually have difficulty differentiating between.
Option A. red
and green.
Option B. blue
and yellow.
Option C. blue
and green.
Correct Answer is. red
and green.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.11.2.
Question Number. 30. The 'cocktail party effect' is
descriptive of.
Option A. selective
attention.
Option B. divided
attention.
Option C. focused
attention.
Correct Answer is. selective
attention.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.3.3.
Question Number. 31. Hypermetropia is the medical name for.
Option A. short
sightedness.
Option B. long
sightedness.
Option C. deafness.
Correct Answer is. long
sightedness.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.7.1.
Question Number. 32. What range of sound is usually impaired
first with the onset of presbycusis?.
Option A. High
pitch sound.
Option B. Low
pitch sound.
Option C. Mid
range sound.
Correct Answer is. High
pitch sound.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.3.9.
Question Number. 33. The amount of light which is allowed to
enter the eye can vary by a factor of.
Option A. 500:1.
Option B. 5:1.
Option C. 1:5.
Correct Answer is. 5:1.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.3.
Question Number. 34. Presbyopia often effects the eyes of
people after the age of.
Option A. 55.
Option B. 40.
Option C. 70.
Correct Answer is. 40.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.7.4.
Question Number. 35. From what age does hearing ability
normally begin to decline?.
Option A. 40.
Option B. 50.
Option C. 30.
Correct Answer is. 30.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.3.9.
Question Number. 36. A person with 20/40 vision has.
Option A. worse
eyesight as a person with 20/20 vision.
Option B. better
eyesight than a person with 20/20 vision.
Option C. the
same eyesight as a person with 20/20 vision.
Correct Answer is. worse
eyesight as a person with 20/20 vision.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.6.3.
Question Number. 37. Long term memory capacity is usually.
Option A. unlimited.
Option B. 4 - 8
years.
Option C. 12
months.
Correct Answer is. unlimited.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.5.7.
Question Number. 38. The inability for the eyes to accommodate
sufficiently is known as.
Option A. myopia.
Option B. hypermetropia.
Option C. presbyopia.
Correct Answer is. presbyopia.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.7.4.
Question Number. 39. Ultra short term memory has a duration of
about.
Option A. 10 to
20 seconds.
Option B. 2
seconds.
Option C. 80 -
100 milliseconds.
Correct Answer is. 2
seconds.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.5.4.
Question Number. 40. The memory can be aided by.
Option A. a
checklist.
Option B. memory
checking.
Option C. mind
logging.
Correct Answer is. a
checklist.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.6 Para.4.5 ('appropriate quidance material').
Question Number. 41. In AWN 47 what is the recommended hearing
test?.
Option A. The
ability to hear an average conversation voice at a distance of 10 feet.
Option B. The
ability to hear a certain noise at 8 feet.
Option C. The
ability to hear an average conversation voice at a distance of 6 feet.
Correct Answer is. The
ability to hear an average conversation voice at a distance of 6 feet.
Explanation. AWN 47
Par.3.5.
Question Number. 42. Iconic memory.
Option A. stores
sounds and lasts up to 2 seconds.
Option B. stores
visual information and lasts up to 1/2 second.
Option C. stores
visual information and lasts up to 2 seconds.
Correct Answer is. stores
visual information and lasts up to 1/2 second.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.2.
Question Number. 43. The first stage in information processing
is.
Option A. decision.
Option B. memorizing.
Option C. perception.
Correct Answer is. perception.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.3.8.
Question Number. 44. Information, if not rehearsed is lost in.
Option A. 10 -
20 seconds.
Option B. 1
minute.
Option C. 30 -
40 seconds.
Correct Answer is. 10
- 20 seconds.
Explanation. eCAP
715 Ch.2 Para.4.5.5.
Question Number. 45. In AWN 47, what is the standard hearing
test?.
Option A. The
ability to hear a conversation in a quiet room at 2 metres.
Option B. The
ability to hear a conversation in a quiet room at 10 metres.
Option C. The
ability to hear a conversation in a noisy room at 2 metres.
Correct Answer is. The
ability to hear a conversation in a quiet room at 2 metres.
Explanation. AWN 47
Para.35.
Question Number. 46. Information in the short term memory not
rehearsed will be lost in.
Option A. 10 -
20 seconds.
Option B. 1 - 3
months.
Option C. 2 - 3
weeks.
Correct Answer is. 10
- 20 seconds.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.5.5.
Question Number. 47. What is the CAA standard for vision?.
Option A. Acceptable
uncorrected vision.
Option B. Acceptable
corrected vision.
Option C. 18/20
vision.
Correct Answer is. Acceptable
corrected vision.
Explanation. AWN 47
Para.3.4.
Question Number. 48. In the human eye most of the refraction
required to bring an image into focus on the retina is accomplished by the. iris.
Option A. lens.
Option B. cornea.
Option C.
Correct Answer is. cornea.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.2.
Question Number. 49. The average capacity of the working
memory is about.
Option A. 7
chunks of information.
Option B. 4
chunks of information.
Option C. 12
chunks of information.
Correct Answer is. 7
chunks of information.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.5.5 Short term memory (aka working memory) is also known as the 7
+/-2 memory.
Question Number. 50. The retina is situated.
Option A. behind
the cornea with the lens.
Option B. in
front of the cornea.
Option C. at the
back of the eye with the optic nerve.
Correct Answer is. at
the back of the eye with the optic nerve.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.1.
Question Number. 51. Motor programme refers to.
Option A. motivational
computer software.
Option B. a task
that has been carried out so many times that it becomes automatic.
Option C. a task
that becomes programmed into short term memory.
Correct Answer is. a
task that has been carried out so many times that it becomes automatic.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.6.
Question Number. 52. Memory which can be influenced by a
persons expectations of what should have happened is.
Option A. echoic.
Option B. semantic.
Option C. episodic.
Correct Answer is. episodic.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.5.8.
Question Number. 53. Information in the long term memory.
Option A. is
easily transferred to the short term memory.
Option B. is
easily lost.
Option C. is
only available under hypnosis.
Correct Answer is. is
easily lost.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.5.7 - 8.
Question Number. 54. How many things can be stored in the
short term memory?.
Option A. 0 - 5.
Option B. 9 -
15.
Option C. No
limit.
Correct Answer is. 9
- 15.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.4.5.5 7+/-2 makes 5 or 9, but b is considered correct due to memory
enhancement techniques (grouping).
Question Number. 55. In the eye, the cones are used mainly in.
Option A. bright
light to give fine detail.
Option B. bright
light levels and they give poor colour vision.
Option C. low
light levels and they give poor colour vision.
Correct Answer is. bright
light to give fine detail.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.5.1.
Question Number. 56. A person suffering from presbyopia would
normally.
Option A. wear
spectacles when reading or carrying out close detail work.
Option B. have
defective colour vision and not be allowed to carry out maintenance work on
cable looms.
Option C. be
short sighted and need to wear spectacles to see objects more than 30 cm away.
Correct Answer is. wear
spectacles when reading or carrying out close detail work.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.7.4.
Question Number. 57. Noise signals are carried to the brain by
the.
Option A. sensory
nerve.
Option B. auditory
nerve.
Option C. Eustachian
nerve.
Correct Answer is. auditory
nerve.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.3.4.
Question Number. 58. Poking sharp objects into the ear should
be avoided as it is likely to result in.
Option A. tinnitus
ringing.
Option B. conductive
hearing loss.
Option C. tympanic
membrane perforation.
Correct Answer is. tympanic
membrane perforation.
Explanation. Tympanic
membrane is the technical name for the ear drum.
Question Number. 59. Attention Getters are designed to.
Option A. to
gain the operators attention whilst allowing them to continue with the task in hand.
Option B. to
make the operator focus his/her attention fully on the task in hand.
Option C. to get
the operators full attention.
Correct Answer is. to
get the operators full attention.
Explanation. Attention
Getters are used in advertisements and posters etc to grab the operators full
attention.
Question Number. 60. At what maximum frequency does the human
ear hear?.
Option A. 16
kHz.
Option B. 8 kHz.
Option C. 20
kHz.
Correct Answer is. 20
kHz.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.3.5.1.
Question Number. 61. Motor programmes.
Option A. are
behaviour subroutines.
Option B. require
conscious thought to engage.
Option C. are
stored as working rules in long term memory.
Correct Answer is. are
stored as working rules in long term memory.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 para 4.6.
Question Number. 62. The pupil of the eye grows smaller.
Option A. in
condition of reduced light.
Option B. to
focus the fovea.
Option C. in
condition of increased light.
Correct Answer is. in
condition of increased light.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 para 2.3.
Question Number. 63. Conductive deafness can be caused by
damage to the.
Option A. cochlea.
Option B. otoliths.
Option C. semi
circular canals.
Correct Answer is. cochlea.
Explanation. Nil. http://www.encyclopedia.com/html/section/deafness_ConductiveDeafness.asp
Question Number. 64. Detail is best sensed by the ______ and
movement best sensed by the ______.
Option A. the
periphery and the periphery.
Option B. the
periphery and fovea.
Option C. the
fovea and periphery.
Correct Answer is. the
fovea and periphery.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 para 2.5.
Question Number. 65. If a person is colour blind, which
colours would be most difficult to see?.
Option A. Red
and green.
Option B. Blue
and red.
Option C. Yellow
and red.
Correct Answer is. Red
and green.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 para 2.11.2.
Question Number. 66. Myopia is _______ and a ______ lens is
needed to correct it.
Option A. long
sightedness and concave.
Option B. short
sightedness and convex.
Option C. short
sightedness and concave.
Correct Answer is. short
sightedness and concave.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 para 2.7.2.
Question Number. 67. The Otoliths detect.
Option A. angular
acceleration.
Option B. linear
acceleration.
Option C. both
angular and linear acceleration.
Correct Answer is. linear
acceleration.
Explanation. Nil. http://www.tchain.com/otoneurology/disorders/bppv/otoliths.html#orientation
Question Number. 68. The nose.
Option A. filters
the air into the lungs.
Option B. filters,
warms and moistens the air into the lungs.
Option C. filters
the air into the lungs.
Correct Answer is. filters,
warms and moistens the air into the lungs.
Explanation. Nil. http://www.sirinet.net/~jgjohnso/respiratory.html
Question Number. 69. The most common cause of myopia is.
Option A. weak
accommodation.
Option B. a
shortened eyeball.
Option C. an
elongated eyeball.
Correct Answer is. an
elongated eyeball.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 para 2.7.2.
09.3. Social Psychology.
Question Number. 1. What is peer group pressure?.
Option A. The
influence the House of Lords have over the House of Commons.
Option B. Our
behaviour influenced by our friends and colleagues.
Option C. The
influence an individual has over a group of people.
Correct Answer is. Our
behaviour influenced by our friends and colleagues.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.4.1.
Question Number. 2. A regular behaviour of an individual is
known as.
Option A. the
norm.
Option B. habit.
Option C. culture.
Correct Answer is. habit.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Par.2.5.2.
Question Number. 3. In a discussion, the person who is most
likely to be agreed with is.
Option A. the
person who repeats the point most times.
Option B. the
most argumentative person.
Option C. the
person with the highest status.
Correct Answer is. the
person with the highest status.
Explanation. No
reference found in CAP 715 or 716, but this is one of the problems found with
pilots 'steep cockpit status gradient'.
Question Number. 4. An engineer who has developed his own
way of performing a task.
Option A. is in
regular violation.
Option B. is
improving maintenance efficiency.
Option C. should
be commended for his resourcefulness.
Correct Answer is. is
in regular violation.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.4.5.
Question Number. 5. The aim of human factors programs within
an organizations is.
Option A. to
safeguard the health and safety of maintenance personnel by reducing accidents
in the workplace.
Option B. to
optimize the relationship between maintenance
personnel and systems with a view to improving safety, efficiency and well-being.
Option C. to
reduce costs by increasing efficiency, safety and quality and decreasing waste
through human error.
Correct Answer is. and
systems with a view to improving safety, efficiency and well-being.
Explanation. CAP 716
App.S Para.2.2 and CAp 715 Ch.1 Para.1.4.3.
Question Number. 6. An aircraft engineer who has
'responsibility'.
Option A. must
be licensed on the particular type of aircraft.
Option B. are
liable to be called to account as being in charge or control of, or answerable
for something.
Option C. is in
a management position within their company hierarchy.
Correct Answer is. are
liable to be called to account as being in charge or control of, or answerable
for something.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.2.1.
Question Number. 7. The impact of human factors and human
error is most important to.
Option A. technicians
and engineers.
Option B. planners
and managers.
Option C. It is
equally important to technicians, engineers, planners and managers.
Correct Answer is. It
is equally important to technicians, engineers, planners and managers.
Explanation. CAP 716
App.S Para.3.1.
Question Number. 8. Where are the responsibilities of
Licensed Aircraft Engineers laid down?.
Option A. AWN 3.
Option B. The
Air Navigation Order.
Option C. CAP
715.
Correct Answer is. AWN
3.
Explanation. AWN 3.
Question Number. 9. Diffusion of responsibility may occur.
Option A. to an
individual working as a member of a team.
Option B. with
certain people whether they are working in a team or alone.
Option C. to an
individual working alone.
Correct Answer is. to
an individual working as a member of a team.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.2.5.2.
Question Number. 10. Risky shift' is.
Option A. the
probability of being assigned to a work task which involves some element of
risk or physical danger.
Option B. the
name given to an inadequate shift handover.
Option C. the
tendency for a group of workers to arrive at a course of action which is
riskier than that which any individual member might pursue.
Correct Answer is. the
tendency for a group of workers to arrive at a course of action which is
riskier than that which any individual member might pursue.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.2.5.5.
Question Number. 11. To ensure that a technician remains
reasonably current on the aircraft types to which they hold authorizations,
they are required that.
Option A. they
have appropriate continuation/refresher training only.
Option B. they
are involved in at least 6 months of actual aircraft maintenance experience in
any 2 year period only.
Option C. they
are involved in at least 6 months of actual aircraft maintenance experience in
any 2 year period and they have appropriate continuation/refresher training.
Correct Answer is. they
are involved in at least 6 months of actual aircraft maintenance experience in
any 2 year period and they have appropriate continuation/refresher training.
Explanation. EASA
Part-145, 66 and AWN 3 and CAP 716 Ch.4 Para.4.3 ".
Question Number. 12. The difference between what a person
'can' do and what he 'will' do is largely determined by his.
Option A. motivation.
Option B. education
and training.
Option C. physical
and mental health.
Correct Answer is. motivation.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.3.1.
Question Number. 13. Whose responsibility is it that an
engineer remains current on new technology and procedures?.
Option A. The
organization's.
Option B. The
CAA's.
Option C. The
engineer's.
Correct Answer is. The
engineer's.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.7 Para.3.4.
Question Number. 14. According to Maslow, safety needs
(protection from potentially dangerous objects or situations).
Option A. is the
last need of human after all other needs have been satisfied.
Option B. is
second only to physiological needs (food drink, oxygen etc.).
Option C. is the
most primal need of humans.
Correct Answer is. is
second only to physiological needs (food drink, oxygen etc.).
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.3.4.
Question Number. 15. The symptoms of de-motivation are very
similar to the symptoms of.
Option A. stress.
Option B. tiredness.
Option C. mental
illness.
Correct Answer is. stress.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.3.5.3.
Question Number. 16. The desire of an individual to 'conform'
to a group by allowing one's opinions, attitudes and actions to be affected by
prevailing conditions is known as.
Option A. peer
pressure.
Option B. esteem
needs.
Option C. culture
issues.
Correct Answer is. peer
pressure.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.4.3.
Question Number. 17. Confirmation bias' is.
Option A. error
in work carried out by a supervisor who has also inspected and signed for his
own work.
Option B. an
inspection of work carried out by an independent inspector or supervisor.
Option C. the
subconscious attention to evidence which confirms an engineer's beliefs, and
inattention to evidence which contradicts his beliefs.
Correct Answer is. engineer's
beliefs, and inattention to evidence which contradicts his beliefs.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.5.7.
Question Number. 18. A person with low self-esteem is.
Option A. more
likely to conform to peer pressure.
Option B. less
likely to conform to peer pressure.
Option C. Conformity
to peer pressure is not affected by level of self-esteem.
Correct Answer is. more
likely to conform to peer pressure.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.4.4.4.
Question Number. 19. Motivation is.
Option A. a
reward or punishment designed to reduce errors.
Option B. a
reward or punishment designed to increase work rate.
Option C. the
thing that drives someone to do something.
Correct Answer is. the
thing that drives someone to do something.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.3.
Question Number. 20. Peer pressure is
Option A. the
perceived pressure to carry out a task in the same way your colleagues would.
Option B. the
perceived pressure to conform to what you believe your colleagues expect of
you.
Option C. Nothing
Correct Answer is. the
perceived pressure to conform to what you believe your colleagues expect of
you.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.4.1. Question
missing
Question Number. 21. The eyesight of an engineer is the
responsibility of.
Option A. the
Quality Manager.
Option B. the
optician.
Option C. the
engineer.
Correct Answer is. the
engineer.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.12.4.
Question Number. 22. A good team is one where every member
has.
Option A. an
opinion.
Option B. an
input.
Option C. a job.
Correct Answer is. an
input.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.6.1.1.
Question Number. 23. AWN 47 states that the engineer.
Option A. is
responsible for health and safety.
Option B. is
responsible for the work he has signed for.
Option C. does
not report for work if unfit.
Correct Answer is. does
not report for work if unfit.
Explanation. AWN 47.
Question Number. 24. An effective group work is when.
Option A. everyone
contributes in some way.
Option B. everyone
discusses ideas and opinions.
Option C. everyone
has a job to do.
Correct Answer is. everyone
contributes in some way.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para 6.1.1.
Question Number. 25. Which of the following defines a peer
pressure situation?.
Option A. Your
supervising manager pressuring you to complete
the current task on time.
Option B. Your
girlfriend telling you to go out with her.
Option C. Your
colleagues pressuring you to work faster so they can go home.
Correct Answer is. Your
colleagues pressuring you to work faster so they can go home.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.4.
Question Number. 26. Successful working teams have the
following attributes:-.
Option A. Members
participate in team activities but retain their own individual requirements.
Option B. All
the members participate in team activities and
discussions.
Option C. All
the team members work in isolation and therefore provide highly individual
solutions to the same problems.
Correct Answer is. Members
participate in team activities but retain their own individual requirements.
Explanation. Closest
reference found to this is CAP 715 Ch.3 Para.6.
Question Number. 27. Good aircraft maintenance supervisory
judgment is usually based upon.
Option A. knowledge
and experience and reference to approved data.
Option B. the
evidence available and forceful management ability.
Option C. knowledge
and experience and reference to course notes.
Correct Answer is. knowledge
and experience and reference to approved data.
Explanation. Closest
reference found to this is CAP 715 Ch.6 Para.4.5.
Question Number. 28. Organizational culture (whether good or
bad) is best described as.
Option A. the
way we do things around here'.
Option B. written
procedures.
Option C. team
resource management.
Correct Answer is. the
way we do things around here'.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.1.2.
Question Number. 29. In an organization which practices human
factors there is.
Option A. punishment
for all violations.
Option B. no
blame unless there is a deliberate violation.
Option C. a no
blame culture.
Correct Answer is. no
blame unless there is a deliberate violation.
Explanation. CAP 716
App.E.
Question Number. 30. A person can be said to be motivated if.
Option A. they
cut corners to get the job done quickly.
Option B. they
are on a productivity bonus.
Option C. they
are taking action to achieve something.
Correct Answer is. they
are taking action to achieve something.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.3.
Question Number. 31. Group polarisation can result in.
Option A. a
group making a more cautious or extreme decision.
Option B. a
group making a better decision than the individual.
Option C. members
of the group not talking to one another.
Correct Answer is. a
group making a more cautious or extreme decision.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.3 Para.2.5.5.
Question Number. 32. Who is most likely to deviate from
standard procedure?.
Option A. Young,
inexperienced man.
Option B. Over
confident, young man.
Option C. Old
tired man.
Correct Answer is. Over
confident, young man.
Explanation. CAP 716
App.R Para.1.2.
Question Number. 33. The ideal behaviour of a professional
aircraft engineer is.
Option A. goal
directed rather than person directed.
Option B. both
person and goal directed.
Option C. neither
person or goal directed.
Correct Answer is. both
person and goal directed.
Explanation. NIL.
09.4. Factors Affecting Performance.
Question Number. 1. Information on drugs and alcohol can be
found in.
Option A. BCARs.
Option B. AWN
47.
Option C. AWN 3.
Correct Answer is. AWN
47.
Explanation. AWN 47.
Question Number. 2. If you have been prescribed new
medicine by your doctor you should.
Option A. continue
with your normal shift pattern.
Option B. take 3
days off work to try out the new medication.
Option C. give
the new medication a 24 hour trial.
Correct Answer is. give
the new medication a 24 hour trial.
Explanation. AWN 47
Para.3.7 and CAP 715 Ch.4 Para.6.4.3.
Question Number. 3. After a general anaesthetic you should.
Option A. return
to work as soon as possible.
Option B. not
return to work for at least 24 to 48 hours (depending on the individual).
Option C. take
at least 7 days off work.
Correct Answer is. not
return to work for at least 24 to 48 hours (depending on the individual).
Explanation. AWN 47
Para.3.9.
Question Number. 4. Your doctor has prescribed you
tranquillizers as you are suffering from depression. You should.
Option A. not
tell your employer and carry on work as normal.
Option B. tell
your employer and carry on work as normal.
Option C. not
work at all when taking the tranquillizers.
Correct Answer is. not
work at all when taking the tranquillizers.
Explanation. AWN 47
App.1 Para.1 (ii).
Question Number. 5. The use of 'pep' pills by an aircraft
engineer.
Option A. is
recommended only when working late or on night shift.
Option B. as
they stimulate the senses and make you less prone to accidents.
Option C. can
only be used if prescribed by your doctor should never be done (except for
coffee).
Correct Answer is. should
never be done (except for coffee).
Explanation. AWN 47
App.1 Para.1 (v) and CAP 715 Ch.4 Para.6.4.3.
Question Number. 6. You are taking SUDAFED to relief nasal
congestion.You should.
Option A. stay
away from work until you no longer require the SUDAFED.
Option B. continue
to take them at work because SUDAFED has no side effects.
Option C. avoid
making engineering decisions or performing
licensed duties.
Correct Answer is. avoid
making engineering decisions or performing licensed duties.
Explanation. AWN 47
App.1 Para.1 (ix) and CAP 715 Ch.4 Para.6.4.3.
Question Number. 7. What is slow wave sleep?.
Option A. Paradoxical
sleep.
Option B. Stage
2- 4 sleep.
Option C. REM.
Correct Answer is. Stage
2- 4 sleep.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.1.3.
Question Number. 8. Phase 3/4 sleep.
Option A. can be
induced by alcohol.
Option B. occurs
only once per sleep cycle.
Option C. is
most beneficial for the body's restoration.
Correct Answer is. is
most beneficial for the body's restoration.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.1.3.
Question Number. 9. Human error can be caused by.
Option A. high
body temperature.
Option B. normal
body temperature.
Option C. low
body temperature.
Correct Answer is. low
body temperature.
Explanation. Both
high and low body temperature can cause error. The answer here is taken from
CAP 716 App.K Para.4.2.
Question Number. 10. What meal is most recommended after a
long shift?.
Option A. High
carbohydrates.
Option B. Low
carbohydrates.
Option C. High
protein.
Correct Answer is. High
carbohydrates.
Explanation. Carbohydrates
replace blood sugar levels most quickly.
Question Number. 11. Long shift work will.
Option A.
initially decrease your diagnostic and maintenance ability but eventually
increase your diagnostic and maintenance ability as you get used to it.
Option B. always
decrease your diagnostic and maintenance ability.
Option C. always
increase your diagnostic and maintenance ability.
Correct Answer is. always
decrease your diagnostic and maintenance ability.
Explanation. CAP 716
Ch.4 Para.3.
Question Number. 12. The circadian cycle body temperature.
Option A. does
not vary.
Option B. varies
by 1.5°C.
Option C. varies
by 1.5°F.
Correct Answer is. varies
by 1.5°F.
Explanation. Body
temperature varies from 98.5 deg.F (daytime) and drops to about 97 deg.F (at
about 3-4am).
Question Number. 13. Acute stress is.
Option A. intense
stress of long duration.
Option B. typically
intense but of short duration.
Option C. a
frequently reoccurring stress or of long duration.
Correct Answer is. typically
intense but of short duration.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.2.3.1.
Question Number. 14. Chronic stress is.
Option A. a
frequently reoccurring stress or of long duration.
Option B. typically
intense but of short duration.
Option C. intense
stress of long duration.
Correct Answer is. a
frequently reoccurring stress or of long duration.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.2.3.1.
Question Number. 15. Smoking cannabis.
Option A. subtly
impairs performance for up to 24 hours.
Option B. has
only a short term affect upon performance.
Option C. has a
noticeable affect on a persons behaviour and performance for up to 24 hours.
Correct Answer is. subtly
impairs performance for up to 24 hours.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.6.5.2.
Question Number. 16. Performance is.
Option A. inversely
proportional to the individuals state of arousal.
Option B. directly
proportional to the individuals state of arousal.
Option C. greatest
only at one optimum level of arousal but diminishes as arousal decreases or
increases.
Correct Answer is. inversely
proportional to the individuals state of arousal.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.4.3.1.
Question Number. 17. Missing a break in an effort to get a job
done within a certain time frame.
Option A. can be
done by those actually doing the job providing the supervisors take regular
breaks.
Option B. can be
counterproductive, as fatigue diminishes motor skills, perception, awareness
and standards.
Option C. can be
done providing adequate rest period is available at the end of the shift.
Correct Answer is. can
be counterproductive, as fatigue diminishes motor skills, perception, awareness
and standards.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.6 Para.1.2.5.
Question Number. 18. Tiredness causes visual acuity to.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. Visual
acuity is not affected by tiredness.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. decrease.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.4.
Question Number. 19. Narrowing of attention occurs at.
Option A. low
levels of arousal.
Option B. both
high and low levels of arousal.
Option C. high
levels of arousal.
Correct Answer is. high
levels of arousal.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.4.3.2.
Question Number. 20. The blood/alcohol limit is.
Option A. 20
milligrams of alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood for commercial aircrew, air
traffic controllers and 80 milligrams of alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood
for maintenance engineers.
Option B. 40
milligrams of alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood.
Option C. 20
milligrams of alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood for commercial aircrew, air
traffic controllers and maintenance engineers.
Correct Answer is. 20
milligrams of alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood for commercial aircrew, air
traffic controllers and 80 milligrams of alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood
for maintenance engineers.
Explanation. AWN
CAP455 Notice 45 Para.6.
Question Number. 21. Paradoxical sleep is also known as.
Option A. Stage
3 sleep.
Option B. Stage
4 sleep.
Option C. REM
sleep.
Correct Answer is. REM
sleep.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.1.2.
Question Number. 22. When taking medicine for the first time.
Option A. take
the first dose at least 24 hours before any duty to ensure that it does not
have any adverse effects.
Option B. absent
yourself from work for the duration of use of the medicine.
Option C. consult
a doctor if you need to carry out any duties.
Correct Answer is. take
the first dose at least 24 hours before any duty to ensure that it does not
have any adverse effects.
Explanation. AWN 47
Para.3.7 (b).
Question Number. 23. For a man to maintain his fitness and
health the conducive maximum recommended alcohol intake is.
Option A. 3 - 4
units per week.
Option B. 28
units per week.
Option C. 28
units per day.
Correct Answer is. 28
units per week.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.1.6.1.
Question Number. 24. Human Circadian rhythms cycle on a.
Option A. 25
hour timescale.
Option B. 8 hour
timescale.
Option C. 24
hour time scale.
Correct Answer is. 25
hour timescale.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.2.1.
Question Number. 25. Removal of alcohol from the blood stream.
Option A. can be
speeded up by sleeping.
Option B. cannot
be speeded up.
Option C. can be
speeded up by drinking strong coffee.
Correct Answer is. cannot
be speeded up.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.6.3.2.
Question Number. 26. For a person with normal Circadian
rhythms, the body temperature will be lowest.
Option A. between
4 and 6 o'clock in the morning.
Option B. upon
waking.
Option C. at
midday.
Correct Answer is. between
4 and 6 o'clock in the morning.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.2.3.
Question Number. 27. If a maintenance engineer has a cold or
flu he should.
Option A. only
absent himself from duty if his work contract includes sickness pay.
Option B. only
absent himself from duty if there are no staff
shortages at his workplace or within his work team.
Option C. absent
himself from duty until fully recovered, regardless of other factors.
Correct Answer is. absent
himself from duty until fully recovered, regardless of other factors.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.1.5.5.
Question Number. 28. Consumption of alcohol.
Option A. increases
mental and physical reaction times.
Option B. has no
affect upon mental and physical reaction times.
Option C. decreases
mental and physical reaction times.
Correct Answer is. increases
mental and physical reaction times.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.6.3.1 Please think about the wording very carefully.
Question Number. 29. Alertness and performance is reduced when
the body temperature is.
Option A. above
normal.
Option B. below
normal.
Option C. either
above or below normal.
Correct Answer is. below
normal.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.2.3.
Question Number. 30. A good rule of thumb for an adequate
amount of sleep is.
Option A. one
hour of high quality sleep is good for two hours of activity.
Option B. two
hours of high quality sleep is good for one hour of activity.
Option C. one
hour of high quality sleep is good for one hour of activity.
Correct Answer is. one
hour of high quality sleep is good for two hours of activity.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.5.1.
Question Number. 31. Finding that familiar tasks (such as
programming the video recorder) seems more complicated than usual, could be an
early indication of.
Option A. acute
stress.
Option B. chronic
fatigue.
Option C. a cold
or flu.
Correct Answer is. chronic
fatigue.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.5.4.
Question Number. 32. The only permitted stimulant is.
Option A. bromine.
Option B. caffeine.
Option C. amphetamine.
Correct Answer is. caffeine.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.6.4.3 and AWN 47 App. Para.(v).
Question Number. 33. Large amounts of caffeine can.
Option A. cause
anxiety, headaches and stress.
Option B. reduce
anxiety and stress.
Option C. improve
alertness and increase awareness.
Correct Answer is. cause
anxiety, headaches and stress.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.6.4.3.
Question Number. 34. The symptoms of stress are.
Option A. violence,
sickness, absence from work, drug and alcohol abuse.
Option B. indications
of improved work performance.
Option C. irritability,
forgetfulness, sickness, absence from work, drug and alcohol abuse.
Correct Answer is. irritability,
forgetfulness, sickness, absence from work, drug and alcohol abuse.
Explanation. AWN 47
and CAP 715 Ch.4 Para.2.3.4.
Question Number. 35. Sleeping tablets can.
Option A. slow
reaction and dull the senses.
Option B. increase
alertness after waking the following morning.
Option C. help
REM sleep and realign circadian rhythms.
Correct Answer is. slow
reaction and dull the senses.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.6.4.3.
Question Number. 36. Information for certifying staff when
medically unfit is found in.
Option A. AWN 3.
Option B. AWN
47.
Option C. ANO.
Correct Answer is. AWN
47.
Explanation. AWN 47.
Question Number. 37. What effect would the consumption of 3 -
5 units ofalcohol?.
Option A. Loss
of quality of sleep.
Option B. Low
REM sleep.
Option C. A drop
in body temperature.
Correct Answer is. Loss
of quality of sleep.
Explanation. Alcohol
produces a loss of quality sleep.
Question Number. 38. Long shift work.
Option A. decreases
the ability to recognize defects.
Option B. increases
the ability to recognize defects.
Option C. has no
effect on the ability to recognize defects.
Correct Answer is. decreases
the ability to recognize defects.
Explanation. CAP 716
App.1 Para 1.5.
Question Number. 39. Circadian Rhythms control.
Option A. body
temperature.
Option B. urine
output.
Option C. sleeping
patterns.
Correct Answer is. body
temperature.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.2.1.
Question Number. 41. A stimulant allowed to be taken without a
doctor's prescription is.
Option A. bromine.
Option B. caffeine.
Option C. antihistamine.
Correct Answer is. caffeine.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 42. The conditions laid down in AWN 47 are
applicable to aircraft engineers.
Option A. who
sign for work completed.
Option B. when
under the influence of drink or drugs.
Option C. for
their safety at work.
Correct Answer is. when
under the influence of drink or drugs.
Explanation. AWN 47
Paras 2.1 and 2.2.
Question Number. 43. Consumption of 3 - 4 units of alcohol
before sleep can.
Option A. increase
REM sleep.
Option B. decrease
the quality of sleep.
Option C. lower
the body temperature.
Correct Answer is. decrease
the quality of sleep.
Explanation. Alcohol
has no beneficial qualities (as far as work and sleep is concerned anyway).
Question Number. 44. The cycles of body temperature, sleep
requirement and alertness are called.
Option A. earth
cycles.
Option B. circadian
rhythms.
Option C. ecto -
meridian cycles.
Correct Answer is. circadian
rhythms.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.2.
Question Number. 45. The intake of caffeine in moderate
quantities can result in.
Option A. anxiety,
headaches and negative mood states.
Option B. lack
of sleep and subsequent disruption to the circadian rhythms.
Option C. a
temporary increase in the ability to sustain vigilance and increased alertness.
Correct Answer is. a
temporary increase in the ability to sustain vigilance and increased alertness.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.6.4.3 ('Pep' pills).
Question Number. 46. Working excessively long shifts during
unsociable hours can lead to.
Option A. decreased
ability to detect defects during aircraft maintenance.
Option B. an
increased immunity to stress.
Option C. increased
ability to detect defects during aircraft maintenance.
Correct Answer is. decreased
ability to detect defects during aircraft maintenance.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.5.4.
Question Number. 47. In theory, human error is most likely to
occur.
Option A. when
the body temperature is at its lowest.
Option B. during
very hot weather.
Option C. when
the body temperature is stable.
Correct Answer is. when
the body temperature is at its lowest.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.2.3.
Question Number. 48. An individual suffering from stress when
confronted with a task within his capability is likely to think the task is.
Option A. too
demanding.
Option B. not
demanding enough.
Option C. someone
else's responsibility.
Correct Answer is. someone
else's responsibility.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.2.6 One defence strategy of a person under stress is to avoid
additional stressors, by (for example) shifting responsibility.
Question Number. 49. AWN 47 does not mention.
Option A. pep's.
Option B. sudafed.
Option C. melatonin.
Correct Answer is. melatonin.
Explanation. Melatonin
is mentioned in CAP 715, Ch.4 Para.6.4.4 (even though the section is a
transcript from AWN47).
Question Number. 50. 3 - 4 units of alcohol taken before sleep
reduces.
Option A. both.
Option B. quantity
of sleep.
Option C. quality
of sleep.
Correct Answer is. both.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 51. Which is important in sleep?.
Option A. Quantity.
Option B. Quality.
Option C. Both.
Correct Answer is. Both.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 52. Stressors in the environment of noise and
heat will cause.
Option A. no
loss of attention.
Option B. a
total loss of attention.
Option C. a loss
of attention and a distraction.
Correct Answer is. a
loss of attention and a distraction.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.5.
Question Number. 53. When going from day shift to night shift,
efficiency.
Option A. stays
the same.
Option B. will
drop off after the first four weeks.
Option C. will
drop off in the first four weeks.
Correct Answer is. will
drop off in the first four weeks.
Explanation. CAP 716
App.I.
Question Number. 54. When working on aircraft, the consumption
of alcohol.
Option A. is
permissible providing the drink driving limit is not exceeded.
Option B. you
cannot work on aircraft even 8 hours after consuming large quantities of
alcohol.
Option C. a
certain amount is permissible.
Correct Answer is. you
cannot work on aircraft even 8 hours after consuming large quantities of
alcohol.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.6.2 (1/2 drink-drive limit) and Para.6.3.3.
Question Number. 55. Drinking 3 - 4 units of alcohol before
sleeping results in.
Option A. loss
of non-REM sleep.
Option B. loss
of quality sleep.
Option C. a drop
in body temperature.
Correct Answer is. loss
of quality sleep.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 56. What effect does alcohol have on sleep?.
Option A. Both.
Option B. Decreases
quantity of sleep.
Option C. Decreases
quality of sleep.
Correct Answer is. Both.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. Narrowing of attention occurs in states
of.
Option A. optimum
arousal.
Option B. low
arousal.
Option C. high
arousal.
Correct Answer is. high
arousal.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.4.3.2.
Question Number. 58. Hypoxia can.
Option A. cause
a person to slip into a coma if they are not quickly warmed up again.
Option B. impair
the sensitivity of the rods and hence have a detrimental effect on eyesight.
Option C. improve
the night vision of the cones of the eyes.
Correct Answer is. impair
the sensitivity of the rods and hence have a detrimental effect on eyesight.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.8.
Question Number. 59. You are taking prescribed drugs.
Option A. Carry
on working, as long as you know the primary and secondary side effects.
Option B. Do not
work.
Option C. Work
and don't care about other things.
Correct Answer is. Carry
on working, as long as you know the primary and secondary side effects.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.6.4.
Question Number. 60. Which of the following is an acceptable
substance, with regard to aircraft maintenance?.
Option A. Penicillin.
Option B. Caffeine.
Option C. Beta
Blockers.
Correct Answer is. Caffeine.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.6.4.3 'Pep' pills and AWN 47.
Question Number. 61. Circadian Rhythms have a cycle of.
Option A. 25
Hours.
Option B. 24
Hours.
Option C. 23
Hours.
Correct Answer is. 25
Hours.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 Para.5.2.1.
Question Number. 63. After drinking alcohol, absorption is
dependant on.
Option A. weight.
Option B. age.
Option C. time.
Correct Answer is. time.
Explanation. CAP 716
App.R Para.1.1.
Question Number. 64. An engineer has a body mass index of 28.
Thiswould normally be classed as.
Option A. a
healthy weight with no real risk of developing healthproblems.
Option B. underweight
with no real risk of developing health
problems.
Option C. overweight
and at a risk of developing health problems.
Correct Answer is. a
healthy weight with no real risk of developing healthproblems.
Explanation. Good
BMI is 17 - 22 (men). 28 is considerably overweight. See. http://nhlbisupport.com/bmi/bmicalc.htm
Question Number. 66. If an average adult has consumed the
equivalent of four units of alcohol, how long will it take for this level to
drop to two units.
Option A. four
hours.
Option B. eight
hours.
Option C. two
hours.
Correct Answer is. two
hours.
Explanation. IAS
Fact Sheet Pg.4.
Question Number. 67. How many stages of sleep are there?.
Option A. 5.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 4.
Correct Answer is. 5.
Explanation. CAP 715
chapter 4 page 11.
Question Number. 68. REM sleep can also be referred to as.
Option A. paranormal
sleep.
Option B. slow
wave sleep.
Option C. paradoxical
sleep.
Correct Answer is. paradoxical
sleep.
Explanation. CAP 715
chapter 4 page 11.
Question Number. 69. The presence of something damaging to
ones health would be an example of a.
Option A. psychological
stressor.
Option B. reactive
stressor.
Option C. physical
stressor.
Correct Answer is. physical
stressor.
Explanation. CAP 715
chapter 4 page 4.
Question Number. 70. Aircraft engineers can take common sense
steps to maintain their fitness and health. These are known as.
Option A. self-improvement
measures.
Option B. positive
self-improvement.
Option C. positive
measures.
Correct Answer is. positive
measures.
Explanation. CAP 715
chapter 4 page 3 1.6 Positive Measures.
Question Number. 71. The amount of stress experienced with a
particular task is dependent on.
Option A. the
perceived demand and actual ability.
Option B. the
perceived demand and perceived ability.
Option C. the
actual demand and actual ability.
Correct Answer is. the
perceived demand and perceived ability.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.4 para 2.3.
Question Number. 73. Long shift work will.
Option A. increase
your diagnostic and maintenance ability.
Option B. initially
decrease your diagnostic and maintenance ability but then you will get used to
it.
Option C. decrease
your diagnostic and maintenance ability.
Correct Answer is. decrease
your diagnostic and maintenance ability.
Explanation.
Question Number. 74. Phase 3 and 4 sleep is.
Option A. occurs
only once per sleep cycle.
Option B. most
beneficial for the bodies recovery.
Option C. induced
by alcohol.
Correct Answer is. most
beneficial for the bodies recovery.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch 4 para 5.1.3.
Question Number. 75. Clinical insomnia can be caused by.
Option A. caffeine.
Option B. jet
lag.
Option C. a
change of environment.
Correct Answer is. caffeine.
Explanation.
Question Number. 76. The normal recovery for Circadian
dysrhythmia is.
Option A. at a
rate 2.5 hours a day.
Option B. at a
rate 1.5 hours a day.
Option C. at a
rate 2 hours a day.
Correct Answer is. at
a rate 1.5 hours a day.
Explanation. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jet_Lag
1 day per time zone is quoted here
Question Number. 77. When comparing noise levels on Human
Performance.
Option A. noise
has no effect on the number of errors or the speed of performance of an
individual.
Option B. an
individual can find noise levels annoying but still perform well indefinitely.
Option C. noise
is directly proportional to the number of errors and the speed of performance
of an individual.
Correct Answer is. noise
is directly proportional to the number of errors and the speed of performance
of an individual.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 para 3.6.
09.5. Physical Environment.
Question Number. 1. Environmental stresses are.
Option A. caused
by noise, fumes, heat and vibration.
Option B. tolerated
by everyone equally.
Option C. not
normally cumulative.
Correct Answer is. caused
by noise, fumes, heat and vibration.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch. 5 & Ch.4 Para.2.3.2.
Question Number. 2. Employers must provide their employees
with personal ear protectors if the noise level reaches.
Option A. 70 dB.
Option B. 85 dB.
Option C. 60 dB.
Correct Answer is. 85
dB.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.3.7.2.
Question Number. 3. The maximum allowable noise dose is.
Option A. 85 dB.
Option B. any
combination of noise and time which exceeds 90 dB TWA.
Option C. 90 dB
for 24 hours.
Correct Answer is. any
combination of noise and time which exceeds 90 dB TWA.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.3.7.3.
Question Number. 4. Environmental capture' is a type of
error possible when an engineer does the same job repeatedly.
Option A. but on
different types of aircraft.
Option B. on the
same type of aircraft.
Option C. in a
short timescale.
Correct Answer is. on
the same type of aircraft.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.5.4.
Question Number. 5. In the UK, an air-side ramp vehicle
driver is most likely to go deaf in.
Option A. the
left ear.
Option B. both
ears.
Option C. the
right ear.
Correct Answer is. the
right ear.
Explanation. Because
he usually has the window open.
Question Number. 6. Up to what proximity to an aircraft
with engines running is the use of ear protection recommended for maintenance
personnel?.
Option A. 200 -
300 metres.
Option B. 20 -
30 metres.
Option C. 2 - 3
metres.
Correct Answer is. 200
- 300 metres.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.3.8.2.
Question Number. 7. Studies have shown that working outside
in a temperature of 55°F will have what effect on hand dexterity?.
Option A. Around
50%.
Option B. Very
slight.
Option C. None.
Correct Answer is. Around
50%.
Explanation. Daanen
H. Deterioration of manual performance in cold and windy climates. AGARD
Conference Proceedings 540 The support of air operations under extreme hot and
cold weather conditions 1993 May. Nato; 1993. p. 1-10.
Question Number. 8. When working with bright lights
consideration should be given to.
Option A. blurred
image.
Option B. shadows.
Option C. glare.
Correct Answer is. glare.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.5 Para.3.4.
Question Number. 9. Which of the following is true?.
Option A. Noise
affects the standard of work proportionately with the level of the noise.
Option B. Noise
does not affect a person's standard of work.
Option C. Noise
does affect the standard of work with certain people.
Correct Answer is. Noise
does affect the standard of work with certain people.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.3.6.2 and CAP 716 App.K Para.5.2.
Question Number. 10. The effect on an engineer of
environmental noise is.
Option A. it
improves concentration and quality of work.
Option B. it
decreases concentration and quality of work.
Option C. it has
no affect on concentration of quality of work.
Correct Answer is. it
decreases concentration and quality of work.
Explanation. CAP 716
App.K Para.5.
Question Number. 11. Excess noise in a working environment
can.
Option A. raise
resistance to other stresses.
Option B. not
affect performance.
Option C. lower
resistance to other stresses.
Correct Answer is. lower
resistance to other stresses.
Explanation. CAP 716
App.K Para 5.5.
Question Number. 12. If the temperature is - 15°C and you are
working on the line, you should.
Option A. rotate
engineers regularly and have a supervisor keep an eye on them.
Option B. carry
on regardless of the weather to keep the aircraft flying.
Option C. stop
all maintenance until the weather improves.
Correct Answer is. stop
all maintenance until the weather improves.
Explanation. JAR 145
AMC 145.25(c) and CP 715 Ch.5 Para.4.4.
Question Number. 13. Studies have shown that working outside
in a temperature of 55°F will have what effect on hand dexterity?.
Option A. None.
Option B. Around
50% reduction.
Option C. Very
slight reduction.
Correct Answer is. Around
50% reduction.
Explanation. So
studies have shown - but you won't find it in either CAP 715 or 716.
Question Number. 14. Cold stress can be influenced by.
Option A. insufficient
vitamins in the diet.
Option B. a drop
in body temperature.
Option C. the
wind chill factor.
Correct Answer is. the
wind chill factor.
Explanation. Contributory
factors of cold stress are temperature, wind speed and wetness.
Question Number. 15. Environmental stresses in an extreme high
temperature and noisy environment causes.
Option A. attention
to be disturbed and distributed.
Option B. no
loss of attention or distraction.
Option C. total
loss of attention.
Correct Answer is. attention
to be disturbed and distributed.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.5.
Question Number. 16. Which of the following environments is
best suited to aircraft maintenance?.
Option A. Working
outside, at night, in the rain.
Option B. Working
outside, in the direct midday sun.
Option C. Working
inside in a well lit, comfortable hangar.
Correct Answer is. Working
inside in a well lit, comfortable hangar.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. Intense or loud noise may lead to.
Option A. deafness.
Option B. fatigue.
Option C. no
effects.
Correct Answer is. fatigue.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.3.6.1.
Question Number. 18. Facility lighting in a hangar should be.
Option A. no
brighter than 10 lux.
Option B. provided
by fixed light units giving light to shadow ratio of 3:1.
Option C. portable
so that individual tasks may be well lit.
Correct Answer is. provided
by fixed light units giving light to shadow ratio of 3:1.
Explanation. CAP 716
Appendix L Para.2.2.3 (although no reference can be found for the 3 to 1 bit).
Question Number. 19. When tasks are being designed, the
maximum mass an engineer should lift is.
Option A. 32 kg.
Option B. 23 kg.
Option C. 50 kg.
Correct Answer is. 23
kg.
Explanation. 23 kg
or 50 lbs.
Question Number. 20. Sensing and perception errors are most
likely to result from.
Option A. distraction
of other engineers.
Option B. poor
lighting or noise.
Option C. lack
of adequate training.
Correct Answer is. poor
lighting or noise.
Explanation. Sensing
and perception are 2 stages in the Information Processing Model (CAP 715 Ch.2
Para.4.1) and affected by lighting and noise.
Question Number. 21. Task lighting in a hangar is mainly.
Option A. provided
by fixed lighting.
Option B. provided
by fluorescent tubes.
Option C. portable
so that individual tasks may be well lit.
Correct Answer is. portable
so that individual tasks may be well lit.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.5 Para.3.2 and 3.3.
09.6. Tasks.
Question Number. 1. When inspecting an airframe structure
for small cracks, to avoid a crack being missed you should.
Option A. hold
the vision stationary for several seconds on each area to allow the eye to
focus correctly.
Option B. not
use a mirror as mirrors absorb and refract light and may obscure a crack.
Option C. constantly
move the eye across and around the area of interest to avoid the crack falling
into the eye's natural blind spot.
Correct Answer is. interest
to avoid the crack falling into the eye's natural blind spot.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.5.2.
Question Number. 2. When a person moves from a poorly lit
area to a well lit area, what is the minimum time they should allow for the
eyes to adapt?.
Option A. 7
minutes.
Option B. 7
seconds.
Option C. 30
seconds.
Correct Answer is. 7
minutes.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.2 Para.2.9.1.
Question Number. 3. Itemized checklists should be dealt
with.
Option A. in any
order, provided all steps are completed.
Option B. item
by item, in order, to cover every step diligently.
Option C. as
memorized.
Correct Answer is. item
by item, in order, to cover every step diligently.
Explanation. Closest
reference found to this is CAP 715 Ch.6 Para.4.5.
Question Number. 4. The main disadvantage of carrying out
critical inspections under very bright artificial light is.
Option A. glare.
Option B. shadows.
Option C. filtered
light.
Correct Answer is. glare.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.5 Para.3.4.
Question Number. 5. When carrying out a visual inspection,
an engineer is likely to make a parallax error when.
Option A. inspecting
a component using a 5x or 10x magnifying glass.
Option B. using
precision measuring instruments such as a vernier gauge or AVO meter.
Option C. Nothing.
Correct Answer is. using
precision measuring instruments such as a vernier gauge or AVO meter.
Explanation. Parallax
= 'The apparent displacement of an object as seen. from two different points
that are not on a line with the object'
09.7. Communication.
Question Number. 1. What constitutes a good work handover?.
Option A. A
written and verbal account of the work done.
Option B. A
written documentation of the work done.
Option C. A
verbal account of the work done.
Correct Answer is. A
written and verbal account of the work done.
Explanation. CAP 716
Ch.9 Para.1.4.
Question Number. 2. A good shift handover should include
details of.
Option A. tasks
that have been completed; persons who carried out the tasks; tasks to be
carried out and general company and technical information.
Option B. tasks
that have been completed; tasks in progress, their status, any problems
encountered etc.; tasks to be carried out and tools required to carry out the
tasks.
Option C. tasks
that have been completed; tasks in progress, their status, any problems
encountered etc.; tasks to be carried out and general company and technical
information.
Correct Answer is. tasks
that have been completed; tasks in progress, their status, any problems
encountered etc.; tasks to be carried out and general company and technical
information.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.7 Para.1.5.1 and CAP 716 App.M Para.3.7.3.
Question Number. 4. A good practice for a shift handover is
for shifts to be specifically rostered so there is an overlap of.
Option A. 2 - 3
hours.
Option B. 5 - 10
minutes.
Option C. 20 -
30 minutes.
Correct Answer is. 20
- 30 minutes.
Explanation. CAP 716
Ch.9 Para.1.3.
Question Number. 5. Asynchronous' communication includes.
Option A. immediate
voice communication by radio link.
Option B. technical
manuals, memos, Advisory Circulars and Airworthiness Directives.
Option C. face-to-face
communications.
Correct Answer is. technical
manuals, memos, Advisory Circulars and Airworthiness Directives.
Explanation. Nil
Question Number. 7. The most effective form of
communication is.
Option A. verbal
communication.
Option B. written
communication.
Option C. explicit
communication.
Correct Answer is. explicit
communication.
Explanation. Nil.
Question Number. 10. What is the most important means of
communication in aircraft maintenance engineering?.
Option A. Written.
Option B. Implicit.
Option C. Verbal.
Correct Answer is. Written.
Explanation. CAP 716
App T Para 1. Interrogation and
confirmation can be used in verbal communication to ensure that the receiver
has understood. 'Implicit communication' is implied (non-verbal) communication
and is open to
interpretation and errors..
Question Number. 13. If you are given a task that you are
unsure of you should.
Option A. consult
the appropriate approved data.
Option B. ask
someone who has done it before.
Option C. consult
type course notes.
Correct Answer is. consult
the appropriate approved data.
Explanation. Nil.
Question Number. 16. The alerting system for an important
system failure should be.
Option A. an
aural warning.
Option B. a
flashing visual signal, preferably red.
Option C. a
dolls-eye indicator.
Correct Answer is. an
aural warning
Explanation. Nil.
09.8. Human Error.
Question Number. 1. The SHEL model of human factors takes
into account.
Option A. Software,
hardware, environment and liveware.
Option B. Software,
hardware, efficiency and liveware.
Option C. Software,
hardware, environment and location.
Correct Answer is. Software,
hardware, environment and liveware.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para.1.5.1.
Question Number. 2. What part of the SHEL model would the
writing and interpretation of maintenance manuals fit into?.
Option A. Hardware.
Option B. Software.
Option C. Environment.
Correct Answer is. Software.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para.1.5.2.
Question Number. 3. The 'error chain' theory refers to.
Option A. a
chain of errors within an organizations can be investigated, and similar errors
prevented by determining a common link between them.
Option B. a
company is only as good as its weakest employee or employees, and removal of
that/those employee from the chain should prevent errors.
Option C. errors
are caused by a chain of linked events, and the breaking of one link in the
chain will prevent the error.
Correct Answer is. errors
are caused by a chain of linked events, and the breaking of one link in the
chain will prevent the error.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para.2.7.2.
Question Number. 4. What part of the SHEL model would the
aircraft design fit into?.
Option A. Liveware.
Option B. Hardware.
Option C. Environment.
Correct Answer is. Hardware.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para.1.5.2.
Question Number. 5. Which part of the SHEL model is most
difficult to protect from errors by 'designing out' or to 'work around'?.
Option A. Liveware.
Option B. Software.
Option C. Environment.
Correct Answer is. Liveware.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para.1.5.4.
Question Number. 6. A violation in an aircraft maintenance
procedure.
Option A. is
usually carried out with the best intentions from a genuine desire to 'get the
job done'.
Option B. is
always considered an act of vandalism or sabotage.
Option C. is
always carried out to satisfy some personal need, often unrelated to the actual
task.
Correct Answer is. is
usually carried out with the best intentions from a genuine desire to 'get the
job done'.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.4.5.
Question Number. 7. Which type of human error is easiest to
correct?.
Option A. Constant
error.
Option B. Reversible
error.
Option C. Variable
error.
Correct Answer is. Constant
error.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.2.1.
Question Number. 8. In the 'slips, lapses and mistakes'
definition of errors, forgetting to replace an engine cowling would be
considered a.
Option A. mistake.
Option B. lapse.
Option C. slip.
Correct Answer is. lapse.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.4.3.
Question Number. 9. In the 'slips, lapses and mistakes'
definition of errors, a mistake would typically occur at the.
Option A. storage
(memory) stage.
Option B. execution
stage.
Option C. planning
stage.
Correct Answer is. planning
stage.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.4.4.
Question Number. 10. On a task that is complex, an engineer
uses his own procedures due to pressure. This is legally termed.
Option A. modification.
Option B. initiative.
Option C. violation.
Correct Answer is. violation.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.2.4 and Para.1.4.5.
Question Number. 11. Visual inspection by an 'experienced'
maintenance engineer is.
Option A. knowledge
and rule base behaviour.
Option B. skill
and knowledge based behaviour.
Option C. skill
and rule based behaviour.
Correct Answer is. knowledge
and rule base behaviour.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.5.1 and Ch.6 Para.3.4.
Question Number. 12. Troubleshooting is.
Option A. rule
based.
Option B. skill
based.
Option C. knowledge
based.
Correct Answer is. rule
based.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.5.
Question Number. 13. A violation is.
Option A. an
unintentional error.
Option B. a
deliberate departure from the rules.
Option C. an
intentional act of sabotage.
Correct Answer is. a
deliberate departure from the rules.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.4.5.
Question Number. 14. A mistake is.
Option A. a
deliberate departure from the rules.
Option B. an
intentional act of sabotage.
Option C. an
unintentional error.
Correct Answer is. an
unintentional error.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.4.3.
Question Number. 15. Whilst working on an aircraft a spanner
placed on the wing surface is kicked off and subsequently falls into an open
engine cowl, breaking off a sensor connector. This is an example of.
Option A. a
skill based error.
Option B. Murphy's
law.
Option C. a
punishable occurrence.
Correct Answer is. Murphy's
law.
Explanation. A Skill
based error are errors associated with 'intrinsic variability of force, space
or time coordination' (Human Error, James Reason pg.43).
Question Number. 16. An experienced engineer fits the wrong
seal during a routine component change. This is.
Option A. skill
based.
Option B. rule
based.
Option C. knowledge
based.
Correct Answer is. rule
based.
Explanation. Using
the IPC is a rule based behaviour.
Question Number. 17. An engineer is working on a wing and
kicks a spanner off into an engine cowl and breaks a sensor. This is.
Option A. knowledge
based error.
Option B. skill
based error.
Option C. rule
based error.
Correct Answer is. skill
based error.
Explanation. A skill
based error (slip) is an error in force, space or time coordination (Reason,
Human Error pg 43).
Question Number. 18. The difference between a mistake and a
violation is.
Option A. a
mistake is less serious than a violation.
Option B. a
violation is not deliberate.
Option C. a
mistake is unintentional and a violation is deliberate.
Correct Answer is. a
mistake is unintentional and a violation is deliberate.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.4.
Question Number. 20. An experienced engineer is fitting a
valve. A required seal is not fitted. What type of error is this?.
Option A. Knowledge
based.
Option B. Rule
based.
Option C. Skill
based.
Correct Answer is. Rule
based.
Explanation. This is
a rule based error. In Rule Base errors are typically associated with
misclassification of situations leading to the application of the wrong rule or
with the incorrect recall of procedures. (Reason, Human Error pg 43).
Question Number. 21. The hub of the SHEL model of human
factors is.
Option A. liveware.
Option B. hardware.
Option C. enviroment.
Correct Answer is. liveware.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para. 1.5.
Question Number. 22. A type 1 visual inspection error occurs
when.
Option A. a
faulty item is missed.
Option B. a good
item is incorrectly identified as faulty.
Option C. a
duplicate inspection is not carried out.
Correct Answer is. a
good item is incorrectly identified as faulty.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.2.6.
Question Number. 23. What is the difference between error and
violation?.
Option A. Violation
is deliberate, error is not.
Option B. Error
is deliberate, violation is not.
Option C. No
difference.
Correct Answer is. Violation
is deliberate, error is not.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.4.5.
Question Number. 24. What is a latent failure?.
Option A. A
mistake that has already been made, but has not yet caused an accident.
Option B. Receiving
bad instruction from a manager who is out of touch with maintenance.
Option C. A
failure which could not have been predicted.
Correct Answer is. A
mistake that has already been made, but has not yet caused an accident.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.6.2.
Question Number. 25. What happens when you break the 'chain of
error'?.
Option A. Accident
happens.
Option B. Pilot
submits report within 72 hours.
Option C. Accident
does not happen.
Correct Answer is. Accident
does not happen.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.1 Para.2.7.2.
Question Number. 26. If an engineer forgets to fit a seal to
an engine drain plug, he or she has.
Option A. made
an error of commission.
Option B. committed
a violation.
Option C. made
an error of omission.
Correct Answer is. made
an error of omission.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.1.4.3.
Question Number. 27. An engineer is performing a task in less
than ideal conditions in order to meet an operational deadline is.
Option A. committed
a routine error.
Option B. committing
a situational violation.
Option C. making
a rule based slip.
Correct Answer is. committing
a situational violation.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.2.4.3.
Question Number. 28. An engineer who has developed his or her
own method of performing a complex task.
Option A. should
be commended for his/her resourcefulness.
Option B. is
performing a rule based behaviour.
Option C. is
violating on a regular basis.
Correct Answer is. is
violating on a regular basis.
Explanation. CAP 715
Ch.8 Para.2.4.2.
Question Number. 29. Error tolerance in maintenance progress
refers to.
Option A. performance
of tasks specifically designed to identify errors during a maintenance task.
Option B. ability
of a system to remain functional after a maintenance error.
Option C. process
of eliminating the contributing factors to error.
Correct Answer is. process
of eliminating the contributing factors to error. OR ability of a system to
remain functional after a maintenance error.
Explanation.
09.9. Hazards in the Workplace.
Question Number. 1. Engineers often work on raised
platforms, ladders etc. What dangers can this contribute to?.
Option A. Staging
may be made of wood.
Option B. Ladder
may slip and man falls.
Option C. Two
workers may be carrying out maintenance on the same lift.
Correct Answer is. Ladder
may slip and man falls.
Explanation. CAP 716
Ch.5 Para.5.1.
Question Number. 2. Risk assessment and management is.
Option A. reduction
of risks to a tolerable standard and monitoring the situation.
Option B. the
investigation of risks and totally removing them and the monitoring of new work
practices.
Option C. choosing
a cheaper supplier or manufacturer for parts.
Correct Answer is. reduction
of risks to a tolerable standard and monitoring the situation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 3. When carrying out a risk assessment.
Option A. a hard
hat should be worn.
Option B. it is
necessary to identify where equipment/procedures might fail.
Option C. Nothing.
Correct Answer is. it
is necessary to identify where equipment/procedures might fail.
Explanation. NIL.
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ReplyDeletenice
ReplyDeleteplease correct question 16, test 9.4. correct answer is C (explanation: gaussian curve)
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ReplyDeleteQuestion number 16 in 09.4. Factors Affecting Performance is wrong.
ReplyDeleteQuestion Number. 16. Performance is.
Option A. inversely proportional to the individuals state of arousal.
Option B. directly proportional to the individuals state of arousal.
Option C. greatest only at one optimum level of arousal but diminishes as arousal decreases or increases.
Correct Answer is. inversely proportional to the individuals state of arousal.
Explanation. CAP 715 Ch.4 Para.4.3.1.
Correct answer is : greatest only at one optimum level of arousal but diminishes as arousal decreases or increases.
Explanation:
4.3.2 At low levels of arousal, our attentional mechanisms will not be particularly active and
our performance capability will be low (complacency and boredom can result). At
the other end of the curve, performance deteriorates when arousal becomes too high.
To a certain extent, this is because we are forced to shed tasks and focus on key
information only (called narrowing of attention). Best task performance occurs
somewhere in the middle.
Question Number. 10. What is the most important means of communication in aircraft maintenance engineering?. Option A. Written. Option B. Implicit. Option C. Verbal. Correct Answer is. Written. Explanation. CAP 716 App T Para 1. Interrogation and confirmation can be used in verbal communication to ensure that the receiver has understood. 'Implicit communication' is implied (non-verbal) communication and is open to interpretation and errors..
ReplyDeleteI think the correct answer should be
Option C Verbal....
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face a serious problem when I’m gone, I lost hope and I wept all day, but one
day I was surfing the Internet I found Dr. Emmanuel contact number. I called him
and he guided me. I asked him for solutions and he started the remedies for my
health. Thank God, now everything is fine, I’m cured by Dr. Emmanuel herbal
medicine, I’m very thankful to Dr. Emmanuel and very happy with my hubby and
family. email him on traditionalherbalhealingcentre@gmail.com OR contact his whatsapp number:
+2348140033827
DOCTOR EMMANUEL CAN AS WELL CURE THE FOLLOWING DISEASE:-
1. HIV/AIDS
2. HERPES
3. CANCER
4. ALS
5. DIABETES
6. HEPATITIS
Explain the different types of shift handover methods and the advantages and disadvantages of each?
ReplyDeleteExplain the different types of shift handover methods and the advantages and disadvantages of each?
ReplyDeleteExplain the different types of shift handover methods and the advantages and disadvantages of each?
ReplyDeleteright ans is ...Performance is directly proportional to arousal.... Sir change it ☺️👍
ReplyDelete